I know this question has been asked and answered before and I found this answer Limit of $\sqrt x$ as $x$ approaches $0$ helpful, in particular the response from @pie, and I am convinced that $f(x)=\sqrt(x)$ is continuous at $x=0$. However, this raises another question about how we define one-sided limits.
I have always understood that $\lim_{x\to c} f(x)$ exists and $\lim_{x\to c} f(x)=L$ if and only if $\lim_{x\to c^{+}} f(x)$ and $\lim_{x\to c^{-}} f(x)$ exist and $\lim_{x\to c^{+}} f(x)=\lim_{x\to c^{-}} f(x)$. However, when $f(x)=\sqrt(x)$, is $\lim_{x\to 0^{-}} f(x)$ defined?
Based on @pie's response, we can define the left-hand limit as such:
Let $A \subseteq \mathbb{R}$ and let $c$ be a limit point of $A$. For a function $f : A \to \mathbb{R}$, a real number $L$ is said to be a limit of $f$ at $c$ if, given any $\epsilon > 0$, there exists a $\delta > 0$ such that if $x \in A$ and $0<c-x<\delta$ then $|f(x)-L|<\epsilon$.
In the case $f(x)=\sqrt(x)$ and $A=[0,\infty)$, $c=0$ and $L=0$ it is vacuously true that given any $\epsilon > 0$, there exists a $\delta > 0$ such that if $x \in A$ and $0<c-x<\delta$ then $|f(x)-L|<\epsilon$ as there are no $x\in A$ such that $0<c-x<\delta$ as this requires $x<0$, so it appears by this definition that $\lim_{x\to 0^{-}} f(x)=0$. But the same is true when $L=1$ or any other real number, so the left-hand limit is not unique.
I suppose we could change the definition to stipulate that the set $(x \in A : 0<c-x<\delta)$ is non-empty, but then we conclude that $\lim_{x\to 0^{-}} f(x)=0$ does not exist, which contradicts $\lim_{x\to c} f(x)$ exists and $\lim_{x\to c} f(x)=L$ if and only if $\lim_{x\to c^{+}} f(x)$ and $\lim_{x\to c^{-}} f(x)$ exist and $\lim_{x\to c^{+}} f(x)=\lim_{x\to c^{-}} f(x)$.
The problem here presumably is the fact that zero is boundary point of the domain? It appears that if $c$ (in the closure of $A$) is not a boundary point then it is true that $\lim_{x\to c} f(x)$ exists and $\lim_{x\to c} f(x)=L$ if and only if $\lim_{x\to c^{+}} f(x)$ and $\lim_{x\to c^{-}} f(x)$ exist and $\lim_{x\to c^{+}} f(x)=\lim_{x\to c^{-}} f(x)$, but if $c$ is a boundary point of $A$ then $\lim_{x\to c} f(x)=\lim_{x\to c^{-}} f(x)$ or $\lim_{x\to c} f(x)=\lim_{x\to c^{+}} f(x)$, whichever exists, but this seems a bit ad hoc?
Also, what about the case when $A$ is a single real number (eg. $f : \{0\}\to\mathbb{R}, f(x)=x$). Does $\lim_{x\to 0} f(x)=0$ but neither the left-hand nor right-hand limit exist?