$\mathbf{SETUP}$
I've been studying a physics model that involves inverting an $n \times n$ matrix of this form:
$$ \mathbf{A}^{-1}_n(x)= \begin{pmatrix} 1 & -x & -x & -x & ... \\ -x & 1 & -x & -x & ... \\ -x & -x & 1 & -x & ... \\ -x & -x & -x & 1 & ... \\ ... & ... & ... & ... & ... \end{pmatrix} ^{-1} $$ which made me interested in when it is not invertible, i.e. $\det(\mathbf{A}_n(x)) = 0$.
I managed to derive a nice reason for why: $$ \det(\mathbf{A}_n(x=\tfrac{1}{n-1})) = 0 $$
which is because the determinant is equivalent to the polynomial:
$$ \det(\mathbf{A}_{n+1}) = (x+1)^n (1-nx) $$
(Try it! It works :) - Incidentally, would this be a common result in some textbook?)
$\mathbf{QUESTION}$
But then, I playfully decided to just make a single (non-diagonal) matrix entry equal to zero, keeping all the others still at $\tfrac{1}{n-1}$, and stumbled upon this other pattern:
$$ \det \begin{pmatrix} 1 & 0 & \tfrac{1}{1-n} & \tfrac{1}{1-n} & ... \\ \tfrac{1}{1-n} & 1 & \tfrac{1}{1-n} & \tfrac{1}{1-n} & ... \\ \tfrac{1}{1-n} & \tfrac{1}{1-n} & 1 & \tfrac{1}{1-n} & ... \\ \tfrac{1}{1-n} & \tfrac{1}{1-n} & \tfrac{1}{1-n} & 1 & ... \\ ... & ... & ... & ... & ... \end{pmatrix} = \frac{n^{n-2}}{(n-1)^n} $$
(The above works regardless of which non-diagonal entry you choose to make zero, of course.)
Can anyone help me understand why? Might this be related to MacMahon's Master Theorem? Or is there some more obvious way to think about this result?
These papers study "hybridised" eqns for 1 nanosphere, up to n=3 case. I care about n>>3!
https://journals.aps.org/prresearch/abstract/10.1103/PhysRevResearch.2.023228 https://journals.aps.org/prresearch/abstract/10.1103/PhysRevResearch.3.023071 https://journals.aps.org/prresearch/abstract/10.1103/PhysRevResearch.5.013013
https://www.ucloptomechanics.com
– julianiacoponi Jun 12 '24 at 11:59