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Let $f = \sum_{i=0}^n f_i x^i$ - an element of $R[x]$, where $R$ is a commutative ring. I want to prove that if $f$ is invertible if and only if $f_0$ is invertible and the rest of the coefficients $f_1, \ldots, f_n$ are nilpotent.

It's easy to prove that $f_0$ should be invertible. We consider $e = \sum_{i=0}^n e_i x^i$ such that $fe = 1$. Then we obtain following equations $$ f_0 e_0 = 1, \quad f_0 e_1 + f_1 e_0 = 0, \quad, \ldots, \quad \sum_{i=0}^n f_i e_{k-i} = 0. $$ Hence $f_0$ is invertible. But how to proof from there that $f_i^k = 0$ $(i \ge 1)$ for some $k$?

Bill Dubuque
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Irene
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  • "...if and only then $f_0$ and..." You have left out something there. Perhaps you meant "... if and only if $f_0$ is invertible and ..." – Thomas Andrews Apr 16 '24 at 10:38
  • @ThomasAndrews Yes, of course. I fixed in my post. – Irene Apr 16 '24 at 10:46
  • Note, since you are in $R[[x]],$ $e$ might well be an infinite power series. But even if this question is confined to $R[x],$ there is no reason that $e$ should have the same degree as $f.$ – Thomas Andrews Apr 16 '24 at 10:51
  • This is not true. $f$ is invertible iff $f_0$ is invertible. Intuitively, $f = f_0(1+\cdots)$ and $\frac{1}{1+\cdots}$ can be expressed as a power series. In the case of $R=\mathbb R$, we do have $(1-x)^{-1}=1+x+\cdots$ and the coefficients $\pm 1$ are not nilpotents. – Just a user Apr 16 '24 at 10:58
  • @ThomasAndrews Yes, it is a $R[x]$ – Irene Apr 16 '24 at 11:05
  • @Justauser Yes that's it. Thank you. – Irene Apr 16 '24 at 13:26
  • @Irene Also the title no longer matches the content of the modified question. – Just a user Apr 16 '24 at 13:30

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