Not in general, no.
Let $R$ be a zero dimensional local ring, and suppose that its maximal ideal $I$
satisfies $I^2 = I$. Then $R/I$ is flat over $R$ only if $I = 0$. (See this MO answer.)
E.g. if $S$ is a one-dimensional local domain with maximal ideal $\mathfrak m $ such that $\mathfrak m^2 = \mathfrak m$
and $x \in \mathfrak m$ is non-zero, then $R := S/(x)$ is a zero-dimensional local ring whose maximal ideal $I$ satifies $I^2 = I$.
E.g. Let $S = \overline{\mathbb Z}_p$ denote the integral closure of $\mathbb Z_p$ in $\overline{\mathbb Q}_p$, and take $s = p$. Then $R = \overline{\mathbb Z}_p/(p)$ gives a concrete example.