If a stochastic process follows $dX(t) = a(t)X(t)\mathrm dt + \sigma_1(t)X(t)\mathrm dW_1(t)+ \sigma_2(t)X(t)\mathrm dW_2(t)$, does the solution take the form $$ X(t) = X(0) \exp\left(\int_0^t (a(s) - (1/2) \sigma_1(s)^2 - (1/2) \sigma_2(s)^2)\mathrm ds + \int_0^t\sigma_1(s)\mathrm dW_1(s) + \int_0^t\sigma_2(s)\mathrm dW_2(s)\right) $$ where $W_1$ and $W_2$ are 2 Brownian motion (we do not know if they are independent or not).
I cannot use two different $X(t)$ to define the process, as it is assumed that there are 2 stochastic variables $b_1(t)$ and $b_2(t)$ that drive $X(t)$ together. Here, I assume $b_1(t)$ to be a simple stochastic process that follows $$db_1(t) = \sigma_1 dW_1(t)$$ and likewise for $b_2(t)$.