For m>n $$\ gcd(F_m,F_n)=gcd(F_m \cdot F_n -F_m,F_n)=gcd(F_m\cdot (F_n-1),F_n)$$
Since $$F_m \cdot (F_n-1) \ is\ even \ and \ F_n \ is \ odd \gcd(F_m,F_n)=1 $$ I am in introduction to number theory so I excuse possible wrong statements and thank you for your help.
solution-verificationquestion to be on topic you must specify precisely which step in the proof you question, and why so. This site is not meant to be used as a proof checking machine. – Bill Dubuque Dec 28 '23 at 23:19