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For m>n $$\ gcd(F_m,F_n)=gcd(F_m \cdot F_n -F_m,F_n)=gcd(F_m\cdot (F_n-1),F_n)$$

Since $$F_m \cdot (F_n-1) \ is\ even \ and \ F_n \ is \ odd \gcd(F_m,F_n)=1 $$ I am in introduction to number theory so I excuse possible wrong statements and thank you for your help.

Anne Bauval
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Arthr
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