The article https://www.sciencedirect.com/science/article/pii/002437959190321M defines "Cauchy-Toeplitz matrices" those matrices that are simultaneously Cauchy matrices and Toeplitz ones. Then the author writes that:
It is easy to check that an arbitrary Cauchy-Toeplitz matrix of order n is of the form \begin{equation} T_n = \left( \frac{1}{g +(i-j)h} \right)_{i,j=1,\ldots,n},\label{eq}\end{equation} where g and h are some numbers. We assume that $h\ne0$ and the quotient $g/h$ is not integer.
I agree that a matrix of the above form is both a Cauchy matrix and a Toeplitz matrix. However, I have not succeeded in proving that a matrix that is both a Cauchy matrix and a Toeplitz matrix must necessarily have the above form.
Can anyone help me?
And, towards the end, I agree that $x_i=g+hi$, but I think that $y_j=s+tj$, where $s,t$ are scalars that can be different from $g,h$, so I do not understand why $a_{i,j}$ has the expression you wrote. – user222167 Sep 14 '23 at 07:37