For me, a region is a set bounded by a Jordan curve (homeomorphic image of a circle) on the plane $\mathbb R^2$ together with the boundary (it follows from Jordan curve theorem that the complement of a Jordan curve consists of two connected sets, exactly one of which is bounded). Here $\partial R$ denotes the boundary of a region $R$ (that is a Jordan curve). I need help proving the following.
Given two regions $P,Q$ and a point $x\in \mathrm{int}(P\cap Q)$, there exists a region $R$ such that $\partial R\subseteq \partial P \cup\partial Q$ and $x\in\mathrm{int} R\subseteq \mathrm{int}(P\cap Q)$.
My idea is to define $R$ as the closure of the connected component of the point $x$ in the set $\mathrm{int}(P\cap Q)$, but I don't know how to prove that the boundary of $R$ is a Jordan curve.
Edit (inspired by dsh's answer)
Let $P,Q$ be regions and $x\in \mathrm{int}(P\cap Q)$, Consider the set $Q_1= \partial Q\cap\mathrm{int}\,P$. The set $Q_1$ is open in $\partial Q$ and if $\partial Q\not\subseteq\mathrm{int}P$, then $Q_1$ is a finite or countable union of arcs, each one having the endpoints on $\partial P$.
First assume $L_1,\ldots, L_n$ are all such arcs. Then one can prove by induction that there exist (unique) $n+1$ pairwise disjoint regions $J_1,\ldots,J_{n+1}$ such that $$\partial J_i\subseteq \partial P \cup (L_1\cup\ldots\cup L_n)\text{ and}$$ $$\mathrm{int}\,P=(\mathrm{int}\, J_1\cup\ldots\cup\mathrm{int}\, J_{n+1})\cup (L_1^*\cup\ldots\cup L_n^*),$$ where $L_i^*$ is the arc without its endpoints. Then $x\in \mathrm{int}\,J_i$ for some $i$ and since $x\in\mathrm{int}\, Q$ and $\mathrm{int}\,J_i\cap \partial Q=\emptyset$, we get $\mathrm{int}\,J_i\subseteq\mathrm{int}\,Q$.
Now assume that there are infinitely many such arcs $L_1,L_2,L_3,\ldots$ For each $n\in\mathbb N$ consider the regions $J_1^n,\ldots,J_{n+1}^n$ that exist for arcs $L_1,\ldots, L_n$ as in the finite case, while $J_1^0=P$. For each $n$ the point $x$ belongs to the interior of exactly one of the regions $J_1^n,\ldots,J_{n+1}^n$, call it $C_n$. Then $C_{n+1}\subseteq C_n$ and for each $n$ there are arcs $K$ and $M$ both with endpoints $a,b$ on $\partial C_n$ such that $K^*\subseteq \mathrm{int}\,C_n$ and $K\cup M=\partial C_{n+1}$. Choose a sequence of parametrizations $\gamma_n\colon S^1\rightarrow\partial C_n$ such that $\gamma_{n+1}|I=\gamma_n|I$, where $\gamma_n[I]=M$ and $M$ is as above.
I want to show that for any $s\in S^1$, $\gamma_n(s)$ is eventually stable with respect to $n$ and hence the pointwise limit $\gamma=\lim_{n\to\infty}\gamma_n$ exists and is a parametrization of the required Jordan curve. Any help appreciated.
EDIT
Let me share my other idea based on dsh's answers (which I don't fully understand).
Let $P,Q$ be regions and $x\in \mathrm{int}(P\cap Q)$, I define $R$ to be a connected component of $x$ in $\mathrm{cl}\,\mathrm{int}\,(P\cap Q)$. Then $\partial R\subseteq \partial P\cup\partial Q$.
Next, one can inductively define a sequence $(P_n)$ of regions and a sequence $(\gamma_n)$ of homeomorphisms $\gamma_n\colon S^1\rightarrow \partial P_n$, while $P_0=P$ and $\gamma_0$ is arbitrary, such that we have the following.
- $P_{n}\subseteq P_{n-1}$ for $n\in\mathbb N$.
- $R\subseteq \bigcap_{n}P_n$.
- For each $n\in\mathbb N$ there exists a finite family of arcs $\mathcal I_n$ such that each $I\in\mathcal I_n$ is contained in $\partial R\cap \mathrm{int}\,P$, endpoints of $I$ lie on $P$ and divide $P$ into two arcs $J_I,K_I$, where the Jordan curve $I\cup J_I$ encloses $x$, arcs $K_I$ are disjoint (except possibly for the endpoints) for different $I\in\mathcal I_n$, there exist homeomorphisms $f_I\colon K_I\rightarrow I$, and $$\gamma_n(t)=\begin{cases}f_I(\gamma_0(t)) &, \text{ if }\gamma_0(t)\in K_I\\\gamma_0(t) &,\text{ otherwise}\end{cases},$$ and moreover $\mathcal{I}_{n}\supseteq \mathcal I_{n-1}$ for all $n\in\mathbb N$, while functions $f_I$ are the same for different $n$.
- If $y\in \partial R$, then $\mathrm{dist}(y,\partial P_n)<\frac1{2^n}$ for $n>0$.
It is clear that the sequence $(\gamma_n)$ is pointwise convergent. I can't see however why the limit function $\gamma$ is continuous and why $\partial R$ is the image of $\gamma$.