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This is an assignment that I am struggling with.

Let $A$ be a skew-symmetric real matrix, prove that there exists a vector $x\ge0$ such that $Ax\ge0$ and $Ax + x > 0$.

Not sure how to proceed here and would appreciate some pointers/solution.

My first thought is to:

  1. Show there exists a vector $x\ge0$ so that $Ax\ge0$
  2. Use proof by contradiction by starting with the claim: for any $x\ge0$, either $Ax<0$ or $Ax+x\le0$, and derive contradiction, but I did not see a way how.

and the second thought is to use Farkas' lemma, which states that for any given matrix A and vector b, one and only one of the following statements is true: (a) There exists a vector $x\ge0$ so that $Ax=b$; (b) There exists a vector $y$ s.t. $A^Ty\ge0$ AND $b^Ty<0$

I start by choosing $A+I$ as the "A" matrix and some positive vector $b>0$ as the "b" vector here. If I can prove that $y$ does not exist under this situation, I would have proven (a) is correct, which means there exists a $x\ge0$ so that $(A+I)x > 0$, which proves the second half of the case. But unfortunately I cannot find a way to disprove (b).

Appreciate your kind advice. Thanks.

Anne Bauval
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Aster
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    Use \ge and \le to obtain $\ge$, $\le$ – FShrike Jul 25 '23 at 13:31
  • Why would $x\ge0$ and $(A+I)x>0$ mean $Ax\ge 0$? – coiso Jul 25 '23 at 14:19
  • Isn't it trivially true for $x=0$ ? – UserA Jul 25 '23 at 19:01
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    Do you need to prove $Ax+x=0$ or $Ax+x>0$? Your title and question are contradicting. – bb_823 Jul 25 '23 at 19:35
  • Also what does it mean for a vector to be greater than $0$ (I'm guessing $0$ vector, otherwise it wouldn't make much sense, at least in this context)? Does it mean that every element of a vector is greater than $0$? If that's the case then this statement can easily be disproved. – bb_823 Jul 25 '23 at 19:44
  • Wow, thanks so much for all the replies. Sorry this my first post here and I am not expressing well.

    @FShrike I used '>=' and '<=' and it seems to be showing as I intended on my end. Let me know if it's not on your side.

    – Aster Jul 25 '23 at 22:48
  • @coiso You are right. Even if I disproved (b), I would have only proven $(A+I)x>0$ which is only the second part of the question. I need another way to prove that $Ax>=0$ in this situation, or change the entire approach. Appreciate if you have further advice. – Aster Jul 25 '23 at 22:50
  • @bb_823 Sorry for the confusion. It's my typo. We need to prove Ax + x > 0. Also, vector x>=0 means every of its element is greater than 0. Thank you for pointing this out. – Aster Jul 25 '23 at 23:01
  • @UserA Sorry I made a typo in the title. We need to prove Ax + x > 0 so x=0 is not a solution here. – Aster Jul 25 '23 at 23:02
  • @FShrike Just noticed my post is showing correctly because some friend corrected my formatting. Thank you for the note and I will follow your advice from now on. – Aster Jul 25 '23 at 23:09
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    Where did you get this problem from? – bb_823 Jul 25 '23 at 23:36
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    @Aster This is a result of Tucker. See Theorem 18 of http://www.m-hikari.com/ams/ams-2017/ams-41-44-2017/p/perngAMS41-44-2017.pdf – Pythagoras Jul 26 '23 at 17:31
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    @FShrike Sorry for my late reply. Based on your idea, I exchanged a few mails with the professor but he was very impatient and refused to offer any helpful advice (I so wish he could learn from this community). Nevertheless, I saw there is a new answer and source posted and will take a deep look over the weekend. Thank you for your kind help either way! – Aster Jul 28 '23 at 03:40
  • @bb_823 It's an assignment from a postgrad Linear Algebra course ran by a very theoretic professor, but I don't see exactly how it's connected with the course itself (other than Farkas' lemma). – Aster Jul 28 '23 at 03:41
  • @Pythagoras Thank you so much sir/madam. I will check in details over the weekend. But please accept my sincere appreciation (wish the professor had a fraction of your patience :D) – Aster Jul 28 '23 at 03:42

1 Answers1

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This is known as “Tucker’s theorem”, “Tucker’s existence lemma” or “Tucker’s theorem of alternative” in the literature.

A proof attempt had been made by user “sourisse” on this site before, but the proof is incomplete. Below is a fix.

Let $A$ be an $n\times n$ real skew-symmetric matrix and $i\in\{1,2,\ldots,n\}$. By Farkas’ lemma, either there exist some vectors $v\ge0$ and $w\ge0$ that satisfy $$ \pmatrix{-A&I}\pmatrix{v\\ w}=-e_i $$ or there is some vector $y$ such that $$ y^T\pmatrix{-A&I}\ge0 \quad\text{and}\quad y^T(-e_i)<0. $$ In the former case, we have $Av=w+e_i$. Hence $v\ge0,\,Av\ge0,\,Av+v\ge0$ and $e_1^T(Av+v)>0$.

In the latter case, we have $-y^TA\ge0$ (i.e., $Ay\ge0$ because $A$ is skew-symmetric), $y^T\ge0$ and $y^Te_i>0$. Hence $y\ge0,\,Ay\ge0,\,Ay+y\ge0$ and $e_i^T(Ay+y)>0$.

So, in either case, we have, for each $i$, some vector $x^{(i)}\ge0$ such that $Ax^{(i)}\ge0,\,Ax^{(i)}+x^{(i)}\ge0$ and $e_i^T(Ax^{(i)}+x^{(i)})>0$. Now take $x=\sum_{i=1}^nx^{(i)}$ and we are done.

user1551
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  • +1 — nice and succinct –  Jul 27 '23 at 14:51
  • Thank you so much for proving not only the solution but the related sources. Just allow me some time to digest this. – Aster Jul 28 '23 at 03:54
  • I am a bit confused about the notions like e_i , x^(i), e_i^T(Ax^(i)+x^(i)) or x=SUM(...) but I think I finally understood the proof. It's about applying Farkas' lemma to the matrix (-A I) and any positive vector e. The two scenarios then turn into slightly different arguments. And by slightly reducing them to the common ground, we came to the conclusion. Thank you so much for this concise and elegant proof. Have a great weekend! – Aster Jul 28 '23 at 13:12