Question: Suppose we have a curve $$\mathcal{S} :\ ax^2+by^2+2hxy+2gx+2fy+c=0$$ and a straight line $$\mathcal{L} :\ lx+my+n=0$$ where $n \ne 0$ and we have the homogenized curve of them $$\mathcal{S}' :\ ax^2+by^2+2hxy+2(gx+fy)\left(\frac{lx+my}{-n} \right)+c\left(\frac{lx+my}{-n}\right)^2=0$$ then prove or disprove the following statement : "If $\mathcal{L}$ intersects $\mathcal{S}$ at exactly one real point then $\mathcal{S}'$ represents a pair of real coincident lines passing through origin and through the point of intersection of $\mathcal{S}$ and $\mathcal{L}$."
What this statement basically concludes is that by the very definition of homogenization all the lines of $\mathcal{S'}$ must represent the line passing through origin and point of intersection of $\mathcal{S}$ and $\mathcal{L}$ but that clearly fails as in the example taken below.
My Attempt: Now I could not formally prove anything in this but I was able to find a counterexample of this which does disprove this but I don't know the logic behind this so any explanation would be helpful, here's the example :
Let $$\mathcal{S} :\ x - 4y^2 +5 =0$$ $$\mathcal{L}:\ y=7 $$ then $$\mathcal{S}' :\ x\left(\frac{y}{7}\right)-4y^2 +5\left(\frac{y}{7}\right)^2 =0 \implies y\left(\frac{x}{7}-\frac{191}{49}y \right)=0$$ Clearly $\mathcal{S}'$ does not represent a pair of coincident lines.
Why is the line $y=0$ coming?

**bold**for bold. I've made the change for you in this post this time. – KReiser Jun 18 '23 at 18:30