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(This is related to my recent question about "rounding up to $\pi$".)

Definition ("rounding up" sequence $(a_n)_{n=1,2,3,\dots}$):

Starting with positive integer $n$, round up to the nearest multiple of $n−1$, then up to the nearest multiple of $n−2$, etc., up to the nearest multiple of $1$. Let $a_n$ denote the result.

E.g., for $a_5$ we find $5 \xrightarrow{4} 8 \xrightarrow{3} 9 \xrightarrow{2} 10 \xrightarrow{1} 10 =:a_{5}.$ The sequence is found to begin as $(1, 2, 4, 6, 10, 12, 18, 22, 30, 34, ...)$ .

Definition ("sieving" sequence $(b_n)_{n=1,2,3,\dots}$):

Starting with the sequence of positive integers, seq.$1$ $=(1,2,3,\dots),$ let seq.$(i+1)$ be the result of deleting every $(i+1)$st element from seq.$i$, for $i=1,2,3,\dots.$ Let $b_n$ denote the first element of the $n$th sequence.

seq.1:  1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 ...
seq.2:    2   4   6   8   10    12    14    16    18    20    22 ...
seq.3:        4   6       10    12          16    18          22 ...
seq.4:            6       10    12                18          22 ...
seq.5:                    10    12                18          22 ... 
etc.
       -------------------------------------------------------------
        1 2   4   6       10 ...                  

Thus, for example, $a_5=b_5=10,$ and as far as I'm aware it happens that $a_n=b_n$ for all $n$ that anyone has ever checked by computation; in fact, comments at OEIS claim the sequences are identical -- but I haven't found a proof of this (or even any kind of rationale for it) in any reference.

Question: How to prove that $a_n=b_n$ for all $n$? (Has this ever been proved?)

(A similar question applies to the presumed identity of a number of other OEIS sequences that seem to arise from both a "rounding up" procedure and from a "sieving" procedure.)

r.e.s.
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1 Answers1

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This is almost exactly proved in the Erdős & Jabotinsky (1958) paper linked in the previous question.

Specifically, that paper proves (as a special case of equation (1), used in an example at the bottom of p. 117) that $$b_n = \left\lceil \frac21 \left\lceil \frac32 \left\lceil \frac43 \cdots \left\lceil \frac{n-1}{n-2} \left\lceil \frac n{n-1}\right\rceil \right\rceil \cdots \right\rceil \right\rceil \right\rceil.$$ We can think of this expression as $f_1(f_2(f_3(f_4(\cdots (f_{n-1}(n))\cdots))))$ where $f_k(m) = k \lceil \frac mk \rceil$; all it takes is mentally splitting up the fractions in your head. For example, the application of $f_{n-1}$ is highlighted in red below: $$b_n = \left\lceil \frac21 \left\lceil \frac32 \left\lceil \frac43 \cdots \left\lceil \frac{\color{red}{n-1}}{n-2} \color{red}{\left\lceil \frac {\color{black}n}{n-1}\right\rceil} \right\rceil \cdots \right\rceil \right\rceil \right\rceil.$$ But $f_k(m)$ is exactly the operation that rounds a number up to the next multiple of $k$, so $a_n = f_1(f_2(f_3(f_4(\cdots (f_{n-1}(n))\cdots))))$ by definition, and therefore $a_n = b_n$.


The proof of equation (1) is very much a blink-and-you'll-miss-it moment in the paper, so let me spell it out in a bit more detail. Let $A_i(j)$ be the $j^{\text{th}}$ term of sequence $i$ in the sieving process, so that $b_n$ is defined to be $A_n(1)$. Then $A_{i}$ consists of the terms numbered $2, 3, \dots, i, i+2, i+3, \dots, 2i, \dots$ from $A_{i-1}$: skipping terms $1$, $i+1$, $2i+1$, and so forth. One way to express it is that $$A_i(j) = A_{i-1}\left(\left\lceil\frac{i}{i-1} \cdot j\right\rceil\right),$$ since the sequence $\lceil\frac{i}{i-1} \cdot j\rceil$ (for $j=1,2,\dots$) is exactly the sequence of the positive integers excluding $1, i+1, 2i+1, \dots$. Nesting this recurrence exactly gives the formula for $b_n$ above.

In general, equation (1) exactly proves that the result of some generalized sieving procedure is equal to the result of a corresponding rounding-up procedure, and the argument is the same.

Misha Lavrov
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  • Ahh! Thanks so much for that -- I don't know how I missed it! I'll definitely check out whether this applies to the other rounding-up sequences in my previous question. – r.e.s. May 18 '23 at 15:48
  • I've added some detail about the proof, since there's not very much explanation in the paper. – Misha Lavrov May 18 '23 at 15:52
  • If I'm not mistaken, this proof doesn't apply (at least not directly) to the other rounding-up sequences in my previous question, as their definition involves $x \left\lceil \frac yx+(k-1)\right\rceil$. Do you suppose one can devise a sieve that corresponds to $k>1$, and for which one can adapt this proof? (For example, $k=2$ apparently corresponds to the sieve of Flavius Josephus.) – r.e.s. May 18 '23 at 18:12
  • Hm, you are right; the generalization in the paper does not go in the direction you want. (Heuristically, we'd expect the rounding to have the same net effect whether or not we go to the next multiple or not, and then $\frac{f_k(n)}{n^2}$ - in the notation of the other question - should be about $\frac{f_1(n) + (k-1)\binom n2}{n^2}$. But this is not a proof.) – Misha Lavrov May 19 '23 at 02:37
  • Just FYI ... The following sieves should generate my rounding-up functions $f_k$: Start with seq$1$ = $(1,2,3,\dots)$; let seq${i+1}$ be the result of deleting from seq$_i$ the first $(k-1)$ elements and then deleting every $(i+1)$st element from those remaining; $f_k(n)$ will be the first element of seq$_n$. Except for $k=1$, none of these sieves will be among those treated by Erdős & Jabotinsky because, as you say, they generalized in a different direction. – r.e.s. May 19 '23 at 19:11