(This is related to my recent question about "rounding up to $\pi$".)
Definition ("rounding up" sequence $(a_n)_{n=1,2,3,\dots}$):
Starting with positive integer $n$, round up to the nearest multiple of $n−1$, then up to the nearest multiple of $n−2$, etc., up to the nearest multiple of $1$. Let $a_n$ denote the result.
E.g., for $a_5$ we find $5 \xrightarrow{4} 8 \xrightarrow{3} 9 \xrightarrow{2} 10 \xrightarrow{1} 10 =:a_{5}.$ The sequence is found to begin as $(1, 2, 4, 6, 10, 12, 18, 22, 30, 34, ...)$ .
Definition ("sieving" sequence $(b_n)_{n=1,2,3,\dots}$):
Starting with the sequence of positive integers, seq.$1$ $=(1,2,3,\dots),$ let seq.$(i+1)$ be the result of deleting every $(i+1)$st element from seq.$i$, for $i=1,2,3,\dots.$ Let $b_n$ denote the first element of the $n$th sequence.
seq.1: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 ...
seq.2: 2 4 6 8 10 12 14 16 18 20 22 ...
seq.3: 4 6 10 12 16 18 22 ...
seq.4: 6 10 12 18 22 ...
seq.5: 10 12 18 22 ...
etc.
-------------------------------------------------------------
1 2 4 6 10 ...
Thus, for example, $a_5=b_5=10,$ and as far as I'm aware it happens that $a_n=b_n$ for all $n$ that anyone has ever checked by computation; in fact, comments at OEIS claim the sequences are identical -- but I haven't found a proof of this (or even any kind of rationale for it) in any reference.
Question: How to prove that $a_n=b_n$ for all $n$? (Has this ever been proved?)
(A similar question applies to the presumed identity of a number of other OEIS sequences that seem to arise from both a "rounding up" procedure and from a "sieving" procedure.)