By "Schwartz class functions" I will be referring to the functions of the Schwartz space on $\mathbb{R}$, that is, smooth ($\mathcal{C}^\infty$) functions $f : \mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R}$ satisfying this condition: $$\forall (k,l) \in \mathbb{N}^2, \exists M_{k,l} \in \mathbb{R_+},\forall x \in \mathbb{R}, \quad \left|x^k f^{(l)}(x)\right| \leq M_{k,l}$$
A function $f : I \subset \mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{C}$ will be said to be nowhere analytic if $f$ is not (real-)analytic in any $x \in I$, that is if, for any fixed $x$, there exists no open neighbourhood $D$ of $x$ on which $f$ is the pointwise limit of a power series centered in $x$. There are multiple known examples of smooth nowhere analytic functions, a concrete example figures on this Wikipedia page (this is a major difference with the theory of "complex-analytic" functions since it is well known that one-time differentiability/holomorphy and analyticity are equivalent for functions $g : \Omega \subset \mathbb{C} \to \mathbb{C}$, but I digress).
The question is then simply:
Does there exist a nowhere analytic Schwartz class function?
Note that the idea is not mine, but rather from this post that I answered to from user @algebroo, specifically their comment. I felt like giving this its own question was better due to OP's initial question being less precise, however feel free to call this a duplicate or close this if it's really necessary. I wish OP would have asked it themself to avoid this dilemma of "do I ask the question or not when it wasn't my idea?" but oh well. Hoping they won't mind.
Anyway, I tried looking for posts dealing with how derivatives of smooth nowhere analytic behave... which took two seconds since How badly-behaved are the derivatives of non-analytic smooth functions? figured in the "Related" section on algebroo's post, but what matters is that one of the answers mentions a theorem called Bernstein's Theorem, which says that a smooth function $f : I \to \mathbb{R}$ with $I$ an interval such that all its derivatives are positive is analytic on $I$. Someone provided a proof here: https://math.stackexchange.com/q/1193121/1104384.\ Yet, we have boundedness conditions on Schwartz class functions (a lot of them, even), thanks to their definition. I was therefore wondering if we could use this theorem to prove that, at least somewhere near infinity, there exist points at which our Schwartz class functions are analytic, therefore proving the non-existence of our functions of interest.
Of course, there are a few problems with trying to use that theorem (or at least I have a few problems with that):
- Firstly, if we could apply Bernstein's theorem directly (through shifting, rescaling, etc...) then maybe it could lead to the conclusion that every Schwartz class function is analytic everywhere, which is false and was the premise of algebroo's initial question: just like user Alex Ortiz commented, compactly supported functions offer an easy counterexample, and my answer also should give counterexamples since it's just the "inverse" of that. But that does not mean there is no way to involve the theorem in some way, naturally!
- Lastly, while at $l$ fixed we could probably "compare" the $M_{k,l}$, I fear that, to apply Bernstein's theorem, we would potentially need to bound the derivatives (or something tied to the derivatives) by a same $M \in \mathbb{R_+}$ and on the same interval, but that feels out-of-reach for now? But perhaps there is a way to do that or to circumvent that?
Of course, maybe the existence or non-existence of a nowhere analytic Schwartz class function can be proven in some other way. I wouldn't mind at all an abstract proof (like, I don't know, Baire's category theorem used cleverly on the correct space or something...), though a concrete example (in the case of existence) would obviously be very interesting.
(As a very last note, feel free to re-tag or edit if you judge it appropriate)
