This question is not only about "tensors under rotation" or "Lorentz tensors", which are one the examples of what I'm asking; as I will explain below, the problem is with the concept of "tensor under a given transformation".
Introduction
For starters, I know there are more abstract definitions of tensors. The definition I am accustomed to is that a $(r,s)$ tensor on a $\mathbb{R}$-vector space $V$, $\mathrm{dim}V=n$, is a multilinear map. $$T:\underbrace{V^*\times...\times V^*}_r\times\underbrace{V\times...\times V}_s\rightarrow\mathbb{R}$$ The set of all such map forms a vector space denoted by $$V^{\otimes r}\otimes V^{*\otimes s}.\tag{tensor product space}\label{tensor}$$ Without delving too much into the details which are pretty standard, under a basis change the components of an $(r,s)$ tensor obey a certain transformation law. Fix two bases and let $A=(a^i_j)\in\mathrm{GL(n,\mathbb{R})}$ and $B=A^{-1}=(b^i_j)$ be the transformation matrix and its inverse, then (using Einstein's convention on repeated indexes) $$T'^{i_1...i_r}_{j_1...j_s}=a^{i_1}_{k_1}...a^{i_r}_{k_r}b^{h_1}_{j_1}...b^{h_s}_{j_s}T^{k_1...k_r}_{h_1...h_s}\tag{1}\label{1}$$ In Physics this transformation law is sometimes used as a definition of vectors and tensors, defining them as numbers that transform in such way under a coordinate change (see e.g. this answer, contravariant vectors).
Let me rewrite \eqref{1} for a vector for future reference $$v^i=a^i_kv^k\tag{1a}\label{1a}$$
Problem
Although I don't think it is the best definition, I have nothing against this viewpoint as long as things works fine and we're really working with the same objects. Now, the problem arises with other definitions which are more specific, such as Lorentz tensors (or 4 tensors), which are defined similarly to \eqref{1} but restricting to a specific class of coordinate transformation, in this case Lorentz transformations. In the case of a 4-vector $$v'^{\mu}=\Lambda^{\mu}_{\nu}v^{\nu}\qquad\Lambda\in\mathrm{O}(1;3)\tag{2a}\label{2a}$$ In the same spirit, 3-vectors are sometimes defined as 3 real numbers $(v_i)$ that transform under rotation (also called "tensors under rotations") like this $$v'_i=R^i_j v^j\qquad R\in\mathrm{SO}(3)\tag{2b}\label{2b}$$ with the obvious generalizations to tensors. Now, \eqref{2a} and \eqref{2b} clearly seem a weaker requirement than \eqref{1a} and the same goes for the analogous version for tensors compared to \eqref{1}.
Question
Are this objects even tensors in the standard sense I described above? In case they are, on what space? The components of a vector (in the standard sense) in $\mathbb{R}^3$ satisfy \eqref{1a}, not just \eqref{2b} and the same goes for a vector in $\mathbb{R}^4$ with lorentzian metric. Also, pseudotensors would be tensors according to such definitions.
Edit (after comments)
Alright, I acknowledge using an example i.e. that of Lorentz tensors was not the best choice I could do. I'm not sure what's wrong with the previous paragraphs but it seems I'll need to expand what I mean here. Consider a vector space $V$ and forget manifolds and tangent spaces. A $(r,s)$ tensor on such space is an element of \eqref{tensor}. After a change of basis of the vector space $V$ (again, no manifold), the coordinates of a tensor transform in accordance with \eqref{1}, where $A=(a^i_j)$ is the matrix of the change of basis (a generic invertible matrix). This condition characterizes tensors.
Now, Physicists sometimes restrict the transformation law by requiring only that $A$ is a special orthogonal matrix and call object satisfying it "tensors under rotation", see \eqref{2b}. Of course tensors satisfying the transformation rule for arbitrary basis also respect this restricted condition. Vice versa, an object satisfying the restricted condition won't necessarily satisfy the condition \eqref{1} for an arbitrary change of basis (think e.g. of cross products under reflections, which do not acquire a minus sign because they are hodge duals of bivectors). So if I restrict to orthogonal linear transformations I'm not dealing only with elements of \eqref{tensor} anymore.
$$g(x)(v,w)=v^1w^1+v^2w^2+v^3w^3-v^4w^4,$$ where $x,v,w\in\mathbb{R}^4$. Why would you assume tensors defined in that setting be tensors on every other (Hilbertizable) manifold? Yes, any Hilbert space is a Riemannian manifold with a constant metric equal to the inner product. Hence any symmetric bilinear nondegenerate form on any Banach space provides an example of a pseudo-Riemannian metric. But that does not make them the same.
– ContraKinta Dec 24 '22 at 14:26