I suspected that it was not possible to define a bijection $f \colon \mathbb{R}^m \to \mathbb{R}^n$ where $m,n \in \mathbb{N}$ and $m>n$.
After coming across Why are the cardinality of $\mathbb{R^n}$ and $\mathbb{R}$ the same? , I now suspect that it is in fact possible to define a bijection $f \colon \mathbb{R}^m \to \mathbb{R}^n$.
My reasons for believing that such a bijection exists:
- This being established, we can say that there exists a bijection $g \colon \mathbb{R}^m \to \mathbb{R}$.
- By the same argument, there exists a bijection $h \colon \mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R}^n$.
- Thus the function $h \circ g \colon \mathbb{R}^m \to \mathbb{R}^n$ is bijective.
Can I now conclude that $\mathbb{R}^m$ and $\mathbb{R}^n$ have the same cardinality. So, does the set of all $m$ tuples with real entries have the same number of elements as the set of all $n$ tuples with real entries, even when $m\neq n$?