Let $V$ be a real inner product space of dimension $n$ where the inner product is non-degenerate, but not necessarily positive-definite. (Thus there is an adjoint map $^\dagger$, and in the case that $V$ is Euclidean, the adjoint in the standard basis is simply transpose $^T$.)
An integer lattice $L\subset V$ is the integer span of $n$ linearly-independent vectors inside of $V$ such that $x\cdot y\subset\mathbb{Z}$ for all $x,y\in L$.
An integer lattice is unimodular if, for any (equiv. every) basis $\{x_i\}_{i=1\ldots n}$ of $L$, the Gram matrix $A_{ij}:=x_i\cdot x_j$ has determinant $\pm 1$ (i.e. the determinant is a multiplicative unit in $\mathbb Z$).
The dual lattice $L^*\subset V$ is the set of all $y\in V$ such that $x\cdot y\in\mathbb Z$ for all $x\in L$.
A lattice is self-dual if $L^*=L$.
It's straightforward to see that if a lattice is self-dual then it is unimodular. (Integrality of $L$ follows from the definition of the dual, and it must be unimodular, and the determinant must be $\pm 1$ since the Gram matrix of $L^*$ is $A^{-1}$.) It is widely claimed (e.g. here) that unimodular implies self-dual, but why is this so?