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I want to know if this function: for any integer $n>1$ $$ f(t) = e^{1-1/(1-(2x)^{2n})}\cdot(\theta(t+1/2)-\theta(t-1/2))$$ with $\theta(t)$ the unitary step function, which behaves as having:

  1. $\max_t\{f(t)\}=1$
  2. $f(t) \geq 0, \forall t, \forall n >1$
  3. $f(t) = 0, \forall |t|> \frac{1}{2}$
  4. Develops a flat-top for $n \geq 2$, so adjacent points near $0$ have the same value and $\frac{df(t)}{dt}=0$ in this neighborhood, so its not analytic within.
  5. $\lim_{t \to \pm {\frac{1}{2}}^\pm} f(t) = 0$
  6. $\lim_{t \to \pm {\frac{1}{2}}^\pm} \frac{df(t)}{dt} = 0$

A) Is this $f(t)$ a "Bump Function"???

This is equivalent to prove that is smooth in the interval, i.e., every derivative of the function exist within, and also that $\lim_{t \to \pm {\frac{1}{2}}^\pm} \frac{d^nf(t)}{dt^n} = 0, \forall n\geq0,\, n \in \mathbb{Z}$.


Also, it happens that: $$f(t)= \frac{1}{2} \Rightarrow t^*= \pm \frac{1}{2}\cdot\left(\frac{\log(2)}{1+\log(2)}\right)^{\frac{1}{2n}} \therefore \lim_{n \to \infty} t^* = \pm \frac{1}{2}$$

So I want to know if it is true that the standard unitary rectangular function $\Pi(t)$ could be defined through a limit version of $f(t)$.

B) I true that $\lim_{n \to \infty} f(t) \cong \Pi(t)$???

PS1: I have seen a lot of "Bump functions"'s questions, but there is no related Tag. So, if someone can, please create it, I will be really grateful.

PS2: I verified the properties using the website Wolfram Alpha [1], so I am taking them as valid results without proving them by myself. If something is wrong please explain why.

Joako
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  • It seems to be a valid bump function with the properties 1 - 5, although property 4 is a bit imprecise. – md2perpe Oct 10 '21 at 19:54
  • @md2perpe I try to better specify property number 4. Actually, where I have doubts is about proving that on the boundaries of the domain the function is "smooth", $\lim_{t-\partial t} \frac{d^n}{dt^n}f(t) = 0 ,,\forall n \geq 0,, n\in \mathbb{Z}$. – Joako Oct 18 '21 at 16:11
  • If you are asking whether $f$ is constant on some neighborhood of $0$, then the answer is no. – Umberto P. Oct 18 '21 at 16:33
  • @UmbertoP. Could you explain why?, I believe that at least in the scenario $\lim_{n \to \infty}$ the function behave as the rectangular function so its actually constant for its full domain, except at the boundaries where its value is $1/2$, just like on the rectangular function... Is then false for every $n<\infty$?... it looks really flat at the top for $n=8$, as example here – Joako Oct 18 '21 at 16:50
  • You can calculate the derivative of $f$ in a deleted neighborhood of $0$. It is elementary to show that $f'(t) > 0$ if $-.5 < t < 0$ and $f'(t) < 0$ if $0 < t < .5$. "Looking flat" is much different from being constant. – Umberto P. Oct 18 '21 at 17:16
  • @UmbertoP. Thanks, I understand now. If I am not wrong, if I take the $\lim_{n \to \infty} f'(x) = 0, ,\forall x \in [-1/2 ; 1/2]$, so, in this limit case, Is $f(x)$ "really a flat function"?? or still being a fictitious "looking" issue? – Joako Oct 18 '21 at 22:25
  • That function is undefined at $-1/2$ and at $1/2$. – Umberto P. Oct 19 '21 at 13:21

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