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I've started to study stochastic calculus on my own recently (I'll read Fima's book for a simpler introduction and then Steele's for a maybe more formal approach). I've come across the definition of the total variation, quadratic variation and other such as $\Phi$-variation. For the more general definition, the $\Phi$-variation of a function $g$ in the interval $(0,t]$ is calculated as

$$ V_{\Phi}(g) := \sup \sum_{i=1}^{n} \Phi\left(|g(t^n_i) - g(t^n_{i-1})|\right) $$ for a partition $0= t_0 < t_1 < \ldots < t_n = t$ of the interval $(0,t]$. The most used for stochastic calculus as I see for now is the quadratic varaition, where $\Phi(u) = u^2$ and the total variation where $\Phi(u) = u$. I have a few questions about it though.

First, I'd like to see if my understading is right. As I see, the total variation of a function measures the oscillation of the function in the interval, thus $V_{\Phi}(g)(t) < \infty$ for $\Phi (u) = u$ means that the function is "well behaved". For instance, a function such as $f(t)=t\sin(1/t)$ has infinite variation for whatever interval that contains the zero because near the $0$ the function oscillates a lot. Is my understanding correct or am I missing something for the meaning of the total variation?

Second, I guess so far that the use of quadratic variation is important because of the moments of stochastic process: I imagine that in the future, when we want to write Ito's integral, we will want the process to have finite second moment and there might be a link between this and the quadratic variation. But I can't see any use for $\Phi$-variation. Can someone point me out a usage for that in stochastic calculus?

Jose Avilez
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2 Answers2

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Total variation

Suppose $g(t)$ represents the position of a particle at time $t$. Then the total variation $V_{|\cdot |}(g)(t)$ measures the total distance travelled by the particle on $[0,t]$. If this particle were driving a car, then $V_{|\cdot |}(g)(t)$ would be the measurement tracked by the odometer. It is instructive to consider the case where $g \in C^1$, as here the total distance travelled is the integral of the speed (not velocity!) of the particle: $$V_{|\cdot |}(g)(t) = \int_0^t |g^\prime (s)|ds$$ One of my real analysis professors, a hiker, liked to describe the total variation function as a measurement of "how hard it would be to traverse a hilly trail".

Indeed, being of bounded variation is a form of "niceness" or regularity. Of note, the following are equivalent:

  1. $g$ is of bounded variation
  2. $g$ is the difference of two bounded increasing functions
  3. $g$ is associated with a finite signed measure $\mu_g$, i.e. $g(t) = \mu_g [0,t]$

(cf. Bounded variation, difference of two increasing functions and consider the Jordan decomposition theorem for 3). I'm not sure if I would use the term "oscillation" when thinking of total variation, as this may be confused with the oscillation of a function.

Quadratic- and $p$-variation

For $\Phi (u) = u^p$ for $p > 1$, the $\Phi$-variation becomes a measure of "roughness" or irregularity. Notice that if $g$ admits non-trivial (bounded) $p$-variation, then $p$ is a critical index (i.e. consider what happens for $q > p$ and $q < p$).

For Itô calculus, $p=2$ is particularly important, as you will later learn that all non-constant continuous local martingales admit non-trivial quadratic variation (usually denoted $\langle M \rangle_t$). This plays a role deriving the chain rule (called Itô's lemma) for stochastic calculus. That is, if $g \in C^2$ and $M_t$ is a local martingale (e.g. Brownian motion), the stochastic chain rule is:

$$ \begin{align*} g(M_t) - g(M_0) &= \underbrace{\int_0^t g^\prime (M_s) dM_s}_{FTC} + \underbrace{\frac{1}{2} \int_0^t g^{\prime \prime} (M_s) d\langle M \rangle_s}_{QV} \end{align*}$$

Where the first integral is the Itô integral, resembling the form of the fundamental theorem of calculus, and the second integral is a quadratic variation correction.

When $p \neq 2$, deriving Itô's formula for a process can be tricky. You may wish to look up the stochastic calculus of fractional Brownian motion or the theory of rough paths for more information.

Jose Avilez
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  • Jose Avilez thank your for your answer, it was very precise. I'll look up the fractional Brownian motion later to see further results. – YetAnotherUsr Aug 05 '21 at 17:38
  • Great! I recommend "Stochastic calculus for fractional Brownian motion" by Biagini, Hu, Øksendal, and Zhang for fBM calculus and "A course in rough paths" by Friz and Hairer for further references. That said, I would probably wait at least until you finish a first course in stochastic integration before referring to either of them. – Jose Avilez Aug 06 '21 at 18:59
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    Jose Avilez thank you!! I do not intend to read any of these until I finish the "basic" stochastic calculus course, which certainly will take some time, but I'll keep the books here in the wishlist :) – YetAnotherUsr Aug 06 '21 at 19:25
  • Hi Jose -- nice answer! Would you mind to elaborate intuition on the following: why total variation for a continuous and differentiable function is a positive number, but quadratic variation is always 0? The difference between these two concepts, to my knowledge, is that TV is taking absolute difference between values of the function, but QV is squaring the difference (for both cases $\Delta t$ is approaching 0). This said, I imagine that QV is much smaller than TV as the former is squared, and the latter is in absolute terms, but why 0? I read proof, but want to grasp intuition. Many thanks! – Sane Jun 19 '24 at 13:55
  • @Sane sure; when you are using this "quadratic" filter you are smoothing out a function. To wit: squaring a number smaller than one gives you a smaller number. Hence, the filter that quadratic variation uses is able to measure for you the level of roughness of a function. A smooth function will have no roughness, so this filter doesn't see it. – Jose Avilez Jun 20 '24 at 14:04
  • This is a great explanation, Jose! Thank you! – Sane Jun 24 '24 at 08:30
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Note that your definition of quadratic variation is incorrect. The $p$-variation of a function on an interval $[a,b]$ is taken as a supremum over finite partitions $a = t_0 < t_1 < \dots < t_n = b$. However the quadratic variation of a function on an interval $[a,b]$ is defined as the limit of the $p^{th}$-variation (with $p=2$) along a sequence of partitions with vanishing mesh-size. The two are not equivalent.

mrk91
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