3

I'm preparing for an exam and am trying to evaluate the following practice integral: $$P\int_{-\infty}^\infty \frac{e^{-ix}}{x^n} \, dx $$ where $n$ is a positive integer. $P$ here denotes that the integral is the Principal Value kind.

I can do the $n=1$ using the Indentation Lemma (or using the famous Dirichlet integral ) but for $n>1$ the Indentation Lemma (or doing it directly with the same contour) seems to fails.

The contour I am trying is contour along the real line completed by a semi-circle in the lower half plane, with an semi circle indent at $z=0$.

A solution would be very much appreciated.

paul garrett
  • 55,317
  • It has been suggested to me by another student that the examiner made a mistake and the integral diverges for $n>1$ - this would agree with my calculations but looking at the examiners report this isn't acknowledged - can anyone confirm? – Red Grassrex Jun 06 '21 at 20:00
  • This may be of help: https://www.semanticscholar.org/paper/The-Cauchy-principal-value-and-the-Hadamard-finite-Galapon/b29976f036f1051023f286e37cf25d11d852ee2c – Aaron Hendrickson Jun 06 '21 at 20:24
  • @AaronHendrickson Sorry no I can't decipher that – Red Grassrex Jun 06 '21 at 20:45

3 Answers3

2

In the special case of $n=1$ we can assign a value to the divergent integral by means of the Cauchy principal value interpretation $$ PV\int_{-\infty}^\infty \frac{e^{-ix}}{x} \, \mathrm dx=\lim_{\epsilon\to 0^+}\left(\int_{-\infty}^{-\epsilon}+\int_\epsilon^\infty\right)\frac{e^{-ix}}{x} \, \mathrm dx=-i\pi. $$ However, as you rightfully pointed out, when $n>1$ the Cauchy principal value interpretation fails to converge, which is due taking the limit $\epsilon\to 0$. In such cases we may turn to other means of regularization to assign values to the integral. The paper I linked to in the comments provides a means of assigning finite values to your integral for all $n=1,2,\dots$ via the Analytic Principal Value (APV) integral. Since $e^{-iz}$ is an analytic function we may compute the APV for your problem as $$ APV\int_{-\infty}^\infty \frac{e^{-ix}}{x^n} \, \mathrm dx=\int_{-\infty}^{-\epsilon} \frac{e^{-ix}}{x^n} \, \mathrm dx+\int_\epsilon^\infty \frac{e^{-ix}}{x^n} \, \mathrm dx+\frac{1}{2}\left(\int_{\gamma^+}+\int_{\gamma^-}\right)\frac{e^{-iz}}{z^n} \, \mathrm dz, $$ where $\gamma^+$ and $\gamma^-$ denote semicircular paths of radius $\epsilon$ into the upper and lower halfs of the complex plane, respectively. Note that since $e^{-iz}$ is analytic the value of the APV here is independent of the choice of $\epsilon>0$. Upon inspection, the APV is regularizing your integral by integrating along two separate paths that deform above and below the singular point and then computing their average.

I will leave it to you to work through the computations but here is a Mathematica implementation of the APV for your specific problem as well as a list of values for the first several $n$.

APV[n_, \[Epsilon]_] := 
 Integrate[Exp[-I x]/x^n, {x, -Infinity, -\[Epsilon]}] + 
  Integrate[Exp[-I x]/x^n, {x, \[Epsilon], Infinity}] + 
  1/2 (Integrate[
      Exp[-I \[Epsilon] Exp[I z]]/(\[Epsilon] Exp[I z])^
        n I \[Epsilon] Exp[I z], {z, Pi, 0}] + 
     Integrate[
      Exp[-I \[Epsilon] Exp[I z]]/(\[Epsilon] Exp[I z])^
        n I \[Epsilon] Exp[I z], {z, -Pi, 0}]);
FullSimplify[Table[{n, APV[n, 1]}, {n, 1, 10, 1}]]

$$ \left( \begin{array}{cc} n &APV\\ 1 & -i \pi \\ 2 & -\pi \\ 3 & \frac{i \pi }{2} \\ 4 & \frac{\pi }{6} \\ 5 & -\frac{i \pi }{24} \\ 6 & -\frac{\pi }{120} \\ 7 & \frac{i \pi }{720} \\ 8 & \frac{\pi }{5040} \\ 9 & -\frac{i \pi }{40320} \\ 10 & -\frac{\pi }{362880} \\ \end{array} \right) $$

  • Hi Aaron. I've presented a result that you might find of interest. I relied on the same machinery I used in THIS ANSWER to find the Fourier Transform of $|x|^\alpha$, $\alpha\in \mathbb{R}$. I'm curious to hear your thoughts. – Mark Viola Jun 08 '21 at 18:34
  • Hi Aaron, this answer is really helpful. However, formulas (39) and (40) of the referenced paper would diverge if I substitute with − and let approach infinity. Actually, the author confirms the validity of the results for integration over finite intervals, not infinite intervals. Do you have any insights on how to derive these results using the given formulas?. Trying to derive the case n=1 gives an infinite series proportional to , and as goes to infinity it diverges. – Spherk Oct 25 '24 at 18:25
1

Continuing @AaronHendrickson's point about analytic principal value computations:

For $0<\Re(s)<1$ and $\xi\in\mathbb R$, the integral $I(s)=\int_{-\infty}^\infty \mathrm{sgn}(x){e^{-2\pi i\xi x} \over |x|^s}\;\;dx$ converges, though not absolutely. It converges conditionally at infinity for $\xi\not=0$, being a sort of alternating-decreasing thing, and converges absolutely at $0$. It is obviously a Fourier transform, when we let $\xi$ be variable.

The standard integration-by-parts stunt shows that the tempered distribution $u_s$ given by $u_s(f)=\int_{-\infty}^\infty {\mathrm{sgn}(x)\over |x|^s}f(x)\;dx$ has a meromorphic continuation in $s$. The only poles are at $s=2,4,6,\ldots$. The residues are (constant multiples of) $\delta'$, $\delta'''$, $\delta^{(5)}$, etc. Yes, this takes a bit of work to see, but it's worth going through it, since this issue is very widely relevant.

So the question can be construed as asking about the pointwise value $\widehat{u_s}(1/2\pi)$. The Fourier transform is certainly a tempered distribution, but need not have pointwise values. Nevertheless, in fact, since the "bad set" for $u_s$ and $\widehat{u_s}$ is just $\{0\}$, away from $0$ that Fourier transform does have pointwise values.

Homogeneity (and parity) considerations show that $\widehat{u_s}=c_s\cdot u_{1-s}$, for a constant $c_s$ depending holomorphically on $s$ (at least away from poles). So $\widehat{u_s}(1/2\pi)$ is $c_s$ times $(2\pi)^{s-1}$.

The constant $c_s$ can be determined by applying both $u_s$ and $u_{1-s}$ to the modified Gaussian $g(x)=xe^{-\pi x^2}$, which is $-i$ times its own Fourier transform in this normalization. This will account for the pattern of factorials that @AaronHendrickson's numerical computation shows..)

paul garrett
  • 55,317
  • Hi Paul. I've presented a result that you might find of interest. I relied on the same machinery I used in THIS ANSWER to find the Fourier Transform of $|x|^\alpha$, $\alpha\in \mathbb{R}$. I'm curious to hear your thoughts. – Mark Viola Jun 08 '21 at 18:33
  • @MarkViola Interesting. – paul garrett Jun 08 '21 at 19:53
  • Hi Paul. Pleased to hear that you found it interesting. Was it the solution on this page or the one I referenced? – Mark Viola Jun 08 '21 at 20:20
  • @MarkViola Both. It occurs me to ask (myself) for the argument that truncation, as in your approach(es), can be construed to give a canonical outcome (and, e.g., compatible with meromorphic continuation...) – paul garrett Jun 08 '21 at 20:23
1

Here, we present another interpretation of the principal value integral as written in the posted question

$$\text{P}\int_{-\infty}^\infty\frac{e^{-ix}}{x^n}\,dx$$

for $n\in\mathbb{N}_{>0}$.


We will rely heavily on the machinery in THIS ANSWER that I posted on the Fourier Transform of $|x|^\alpha$ for $\alpha\in \mathbb{R}$. In that answer, we defined a distribution that permits our defining the Fourier Transform of $|x|^\alpha$ for $\alpha \le -1$. In the ensuing development, we restrict $\alpha$ to the negative integers.


Proceeding, we let $n\in \mathbb{N}_{>0}$. We define the distribution $\lambda_1$ such that for any $\phi\in \mathbb{S}$ (i.e., $\phi$ is a Schwarz Space function)

$$\langle \lambda_1, \phi\rangle = \int_{|x|\le 1}\frac{\phi(x)-\sum_{m=0}^{n-1} \frac{\phi^{m}(0)}{m!}x^m}{x^{n}}\,dx\tag1$$

where we interpret the value of the integral as its Cauchy Principal Value.

Equipped with the distribution defined in $(1)$, we proceed to determine the Fourier Transform of $\psi(x)=x^{-n}$.


Denoting $\psi(x)=x^{-n}$ and $\phi\in \mathbb{S}$ and using the distribution defined in $(1)$, we see that

$$\begin{align} \langle \mathscr{F}\{\psi\},\phi\rangle &=\langle \psi,\mathscr{F}\{\phi\}\rangle \\\\ &=\int_{-\infty}^\infty \frac1{x^n} \int_{-\infty}^\infty \phi(k)\left( e^{-ikx}-\sum_{m=0}^{|n|-1}\frac{(-ik)^m}{m!}x^m\right)\,dk\,dx\tag2\\\\ &=\frac1{(n-1)!} \int_{-\infty}^\infty \frac1x \int_{-\infty}^\infty \phi(k)(-ik)^{n-1}(e^{-ikx})\,dk\,dx\tag3\\\\ &=\frac{(-i)^{n-1}}{(n-1)!}\int_{-\infty}^\infty k^{n-1}\phi(k)\int_{-\infty}^\infty \frac{e^{-ikx}}{x}\,dx\,dk\tag4\\\\ &=\frac{(-i)^n \pi}{(n-1)!}\int_{-\infty}^\infty k^{n-1}\text{sgn}(k)\phi(k)\,dk\tag5 \end{align}$$



NOTES:

In going from $(2)$ to $(3)$, we integrated by parts $n-1$ times. Justifucation of the interchange of the order of integration in going from $(3)$ to $(4)$ is left as an exercise for the reader (See THIS ANSWER for a way forward). Finally, we note that the real part of the integrand of the inner integral in $(4)$ is odd and integrates to $0$, while the imaginary part is $-\frac{\sin(kx)}{x}$ and integrates to $-\pi \text{sgn}(k)$.



From $(5)$, we see that in distribution, the Fourier transform of $\psi(x)=x^{-n}$, $n\in \mathbb{N}_{>0}$ is

$$\mathscr{F}\{\psi\}(k)=\frac{(-i)^n \pi}{(n-1)!}k^{n-1}\text{sgn}(k)$$

Setting $k=1$, we have the result that

$$\bbox[5px,border:2px solid #C0A000]{\text{P}\int_{-\infty}^\infty \frac{e^{-ix}}{x^n}\,dx=\frac{(-i)^n\pi}{(n-1)!}}\tag6$$

where $\text{P}\int_{-\infty}^\infty \frac{e^{-ix}}{x^n}\,dx$ in $(6)$ is interpreted under the distribution defined in $(1)$. The expression in $(6)$ generalizes the result presented in Aaron Hendrickson's post for $1\le n\le 10$.

Mark Viola
  • 184,670