Let $f,g \subset C[a,b] $ where $f$ satisfies $f(a)f(b)<0$. Consider the bisection method for the numerical approximation of the root in $fg^2$ has atleast one root in $[a,b]$, and the sequence $y_1, y_2$ the method produces. Explain why $fg^2$ has atleast one root and also prove analyticaly that $y_n \to y*$ as $n \to \infty$
I'm trying to think of a way to prove this, say for example if we take $f(g) = 2g+3g+1g$ in $[a,b] = [-2,1]$, then $f(a)f(b) < 0$ is satisfied. Then $g^2$ would result in a positive and negative number for both $a$ and $b$. So it is obvious that $fg^2$ has atleast one root, because we have an $[a,b]$ that has both a positive and a negative number... But what about a general case?
If we apply the bisection method on $(2g+3g+1g)^2$ it will converge... again, how to prove for the general case?
$y* = root$