2

In several literature of partial differential equations I read some arguments as the following:

$$ \int_\Omega \frac{\partial f(x,t)}{\partial t} dx = \frac{\partial }{\partial t} \int_\Omega f(x,t) dx, $$ where $f:\mathbb{R}^2\to \mathbb{R}$ is a function. My question is: what are the sufficient conditions for that the last equality follows? is it always follows?

0 Answers0