Can someone provide a proof or counterexample to the following conjecture?
Conjecture: if $X$ is a topological space such that every open set $U \subseteq X$ satisfies $\mathrm{int}( \mathrm{c\ell}(U)) = U$, then every open set is closed (i.e. clopen).
Context: for any topological space $X$, its lattice of open sets forms a "model" of intuitionistic propositional logic. We interpret propositions as open sets $U$, $\land$ as intersection, $\lor$ as union, $\varnothing$ as $\bot$ and $X$ as $\top$. Implication is defined $U \to V = \mathrm{int}( U^\complement \cup V)$ - see this nLab article - and negation is defined $\lnot U = U \to \bot = \mathrm{ext}(U)$.
It is known that, over intuitionistic logic, the law of excluded middle $P \lor \lnot P$ and double negation elimination $\lnot \lnot P \to P$ are equivalent. Saying $U \cup \lnot U = X$ for an open set $U \subseteq X$ is equivalent to saying $U$ is closed (clopen). Meanwhile, saying that $\lnot \lnot U = U$ is equivalent to saying $\mathrm{int}( \mathrm{c\ell}(U)) = U$.
Thus, I was trying to prove the equivalence of $\mathsf{LEM}$ and $\mathsf{DNE}$ using this topological interpretation. The forward direction is easy enough, but I couldn't prove the reverse easily, which is the conjecture above.