I would like some help computing this integral:
$$\int \sin(\pi t)\cos(\pi t)dt$$
Apparently, the answer should be $\frac{\sin^2(\pi t)}{2\pi}+C$ but I get $\frac{-\cos(2 \pi t)}{4 \pi}$+C instead. Here's what I did:
- I rewrote the integrand as $\frac{1}{2}\sin(2\pi t)$.
- I took out the constant $\frac{1}{2}$ out of the integral, so my expression became $\frac{1}{2} \int \sin(2\pi t)dt$.
- I evaluated the antiderivative of $\sin(2\pi t)$, which I believe is $-\frac{\cos(2\pi t)}{2 \pi}+C$.
- Lastly, I multiplied the antiderivative with $\frac{1}{2}$, yielding my final answer.
Would it be wrong to assume that both answers are equivalent, since the integral can either be rewritten using the half-angle formula or solved by U-substitution? If not, could you please explain why?