I met the following integral when I was reading a paper: $$\int_0^\infty Ai(y)dy=\frac{1}{3},$$ where $$Ai(y)=\frac{1}{\pi}\int_0^\infty \cos(\alpha y+\frac{\alpha^3}{3})d\alpha.$$
The paper adopted one asymptotic result of the Airy function, $$\int_0^x Ai(y)dy \sim \frac{1}{3}-\frac{1}{2}\pi^{-\frac{1}{2}}x^{-\frac{3}{4}}\exp{\left(-\frac{2}{3}x^\frac{3}{2}\right)}, \quad \text{for large x}.$$ You may find this result on Eq.(10.4.82), Handbook of Mathematical Functions, Abramowitz and Stegun. A similar result is given in Eq.(10.4.83), $$\int_0^x Ai(-y)dy \sim \frac{2}{3}-\frac{1}{2}\pi^{-\frac{1}{2}}x^{-\frac{3}{4}}\cos{\left(\frac{2}{3}x^\frac{3}{2}+\frac{\pi}{4}\right)}, \quad \text{for large x}.$$
However, I was wondering whether we can see the first result by calculating the integrals directly, and $$\int_0^\infty Ai(-y)dy=\frac{2}{3}$$ as well.
Any advice or references are appreciated.