In Shastri's Basic Algebraic Topology Remark 1.8.8, the author wrotes that
The difference between covariance and contravariance is simply in the fact that covariance preserves the direction of the arrow whereas contravariance reverses it. However, in practice, it turns out that contravariance has more mathematical structure in it whereas covariance is more geometrical and easy to understand.
I am really curious as to why the author thinks that way. Unfortunately, he doesn't provide further justification of that. My question is:
- Is this a serious claim? (i.e. Is there a sense in which it is true?)
- If the answer to 1 is 'yes', what's the underlying reason for this phenomenon? (maybe there is a categorical justification?)
Though I am just a beginner in algebraic topology, answers from all levels are welcomed.
As Connor Malin comments below, every contravariant functor is a covariant functor from $\mathsf{C^{op}}$ to $\mathsf D$, so the two concepts are duals of each other, which further mystifies the claim.