Asked on maths overflow here.
What's the bijection between (equivalence classes of) scalar products (I guess 'scalar product' is the same as 'inner product') and a.c.s. (almost complex structure/s) on $\mathbb R^2$?
From Example 1.2.12 of Daniel Huybrechts - Complex Geometry An Introduction.
Assumptions and notation:
I just pretend $V = \mathbb R^2$ literally instead of just an isomorphism.
Let $\Phi(V)$ be the set of real symmetric positive definite $2 \times 2$ matrices. This set is in bijection with inner products on $V$, I believe. We have according to this,
$$\Phi(V) = \{\begin{bmatrix} h & f\\ f & g \end{bmatrix} \ | \ h+g, hg-f^2 > 0 \}_{h,f,g \in \mathbb R}$$
- Let $\Gamma(V)$ be the (matrix representations of) a.c.s. on $V$. We have, according to this,
$$\{\begin{bmatrix} a & b\\ \frac{-1-a^2}{b} & -a \end{bmatrix}\}_{a,b \in \mathbb R, b \ne 0}=: \Gamma(V) \subseteq Auto_{\mathbb R}(V) \subseteq End_{\mathbb R}(V)$$
- I understand that the 'rotation' matrices in $V$ are $SO(2) := \{R(\theta) := \begin{bmatrix} \cos(\theta) & -\sin(\theta)\\ \sin(\theta) & \cos(\theta) \end{bmatrix}\}_{\theta \in \mathbb R}$, though I'm not sure that Huybrechts has the same usage of the term 'rotation'. (I ask about this later.)
Questions:
A. For injectivity (except for the equivalence class):
Given (equivalence class of) scalar product ($[M]$ of) $M$, choose unique $I$ that assigns $v$ to the one described. I'll call this map $\gamma: \Phi(V) \to \Gamma(V)$, $\gamma(M)=I$. (Later, $\tilde \gamma: \frac{\Phi(V)}{\tilde{}} \to \Gamma(V)$, $\tilde \gamma([M])=I$.)
It's 'rotation by $\pi/2$' or something. In what way? For $M=I_2$ (2x2 identity), then $I$ is indeed 'rotation by $\pi/2$', in the sense that it's $\begin{bmatrix} 0 & 1\\ -1 & 0 \end{bmatrix} \in SO(2) \cap \gamma(V)$, which is the '$R(\theta)$', for $\theta = \pi/2$.
What exactly is the formula for $I=\begin{bmatrix} a & b\\ \frac{-1-a^2}{b} & -a \end{bmatrix} \in \Gamma(V)$ given $M = \begin{bmatrix} h & f\\ f & g \end{bmatrix} \in \Phi(V)$?
I'm asking because
2a - I would exceed wolfram computation time
2b - I notice for a different $M$ I tried, $I$ isn't a 'rotation matrix' in the sense of $SO(2)$. In fact, I believe the only 'rotation' matrices that are also a.c.s. are $\pm \begin{bmatrix} 0 & 1\\ -1 & 0 \end{bmatrix}$, i.e. $SO(2) \cap \gamma(V) = \{\pm \begin{bmatrix} 0 & 1\\ -1 & 0 \end{bmatrix}\}$. However, I think $I$ kind of 'rotates by $\pi/2$' in some other sense.
2c - I think $SO(2) \cap \gamma(V)$ isn't meant to be the image of $\gamma$
B. For surjectivity:
I'll call whatever map we would have as $\phi: \Gamma(V) \to \Phi(V)$, $\phi(I)=M$
Given an a.c.s. $I$, what are some possible scalar products $M$?
There's a comment that goes choosing the unique $M_v$ such that for some $v \in V \setminus 0$, we have $\{v,I(v)\}$ as an orthonormal basis. I tried this out (long to type!), and the only thing missing was the positively oriented. I guess either $\{v,I(v)\}$ or $\{v,-I(v)\}$ is positively oriented though. So I'll let $M_v$/$N_v \in \Phi(V)$ correspond to $\{v,I(v)\}$/$\{v,-I(v)\}$. Then by fixing $v$ (I ask about non-fixing of $v$ later), we have $\phi(I)=M_v$ or $N_v$, whichever corresponds to positively oriented basis. I'll just call this $\phi(I)=L_v$ Is this right?
Is $\phi$ supposedly an inverse (or right inverse or left inverse or whatever) to $\gamma$ (or $\tilde \gamma$ or whatever), in the sense that $\gamma(\phi(I)) = I$ for all (a.c.s.) $I \in \Gamma(V)$?
This whole thing about the $v$ makes me think there's another equivalence relation going on here. Is there?
This seems like we can have maps parametrised by the nonzero $v$, namely $\phi_v: \Gamma(V) \to \Phi(V)$. In this case, we might investigate if $\phi_v(I)=L_v=L_w=\phi_w(I)$ or at least if $[L_v]=[L_w]$ under the old equivalence relation of positive scalar $\lambda$, i.e. $L_v = \lambda L_w$. If this investigation turns out negative, then I think there's some problem like if 2 inner products are equivalent if they are from the same a.c.s. $I$ under $\phi_{\cdot}$, but for possibly different $v$ and $w$, then I think the equivalence class of $L_v$ under this new relation, which is $\{L_w\}_{w \ne 0}$, might not be the same as the equivalence class of $L_v$ under the old relation, which is $\{\lambda L_v\}_{\lambda > 0}$.
Ideas:
Perhaps there's some matrix thing here about how scalar products are in bijection with positive definite symmetric matrices and then almost complex structures are rotation matrices or something that are square roots of $-I_2$. Like given pos def symmetric $B$, there exists unique a.c.s. $J$ such that (something something).
Perhaps this is related, but I'd rather not further analyse the question or read through the answer given that I've spent over a month on almost complex structures BEFORE we even put inner products on vector spaces. Please consider spoon-feeding me here.
