Let $F:[0,\infty) \to [0,\infty)$ be a $C^2$ strictly convex function, and let $r_0<r_1$ be positive fixed constants. Let $$a<r_0<r_1<c<b, \tag{1}$$ and let $\lambda \in [0,1]$ satisfy $ \lambda a +(1-\lambda)b=c. $
Set $D(a,b,c)=\lambda F(a)+(1-\lambda)F(b)-F(c) $.
Question: Does there exist a constant $m>0$ (which may depend on $f,r_0,r_1$ but not on $a,b,c$) such that $ D(a,b,c) \ge m\lambda(1-\lambda)(r_1-r_0)^2 $ for any choice of $a,b,c$ satisfying condition $(1)$?
Here is the key point:
If $f'' \ge m$, then $f$ is strongly convex with parameter $m$, so $$ D(a,b,c) \ge \frac{1}{2}m\lambda(1-\lambda)(b-a)^2 \ge \frac{1}{2}m\lambda(1-\lambda)(r_1-r_0)^2 \tag{2} $$ as required. However, in our case, $c$ and $b$ can be arbitrarily large, and $F$ can become "less convex" (closer to being affine) when $x \to \infty$. In other words, if $\lim_{x \to \infty}F''(x)=0$, then the lower bound $(2)$ becomes the trivial bound $$ D(a,b,c) \ge \frac{1}{2} (\inf F'')\lambda(1-\lambda)(b-a)^2=0. $$
So, "naive application" of strong convexity does not apply here as is. However, my intuition is that even if $\lim_{x \to \infty}F''(x)=0$, we should somehow encounter "the strong convexity content" which lies between the fixed $r_0$ and $r_1$ so the "convexity gap" $D(a,b,c)$ should be bounded away from zero.
I thought to express $D(a,b,c)$ as some integral of $F''$ over a domain which contains $[r_0,r_1]$ but so far without success.