I was studying Stephen Boyd's textbook and got confused in the KKT part. The book says the following:
For any convex optimization problem with differentiable objective and constraint function, any points that satisfy the KKT conditions are primal and dual optimal and have zero duality gap.
So, it sounded like if I find any point (x,$\lambda$, $\nu$) satisfying the KKT condition, x will be a primal optimum. Then, later it says the following:
"If a convex optimization problem with differentiable objective and constraint functions satisfies Slater's condition, then the KKT conditions provide necessary and sufficient conditions for optimality: Slater's condition implies that the optimal duality gap is zero and the dual optimum is attained, so x is optimal if and only if there are ($\lambda$,$\nu$) that, together with x, satisfy the KKT condition."
The inclusion of the Slater's condition in the second statement makes me confused. The first sentence sounds like any (x, $\lambda$, $\nu$) satisfying the KKT conditions (even though the Slater's condition does not hold) is a primal optimal. Then, the second sentence says that KKT becomes the necessary and sufficient condition when the Slater's condition holds.
Can somebody clarify this? To find a primal optimal, is it ok to find just (x, $\lambda$, $\nu$) satisfying the KKT condition? Or, should I also show the Slater's condition?