The question referred from this discussion Borel-Cantelli Lemma "Corollary" in Royden and Fitzpatrick
I understand the proof of the Leems.But i still don't get "Then almost all x ∈ R belong to at most finitely many of the E_Ks"? i understood that if x belongs to infinitely E_k then the set contain all such x has measure 0 but how it implies finitely many x's belongs to that set? or infinitely many x ∈ R belong to at most finitely many of the Ek's? how i can get a contradiction?
THanks in advance for the help.