I have a linear system of homogeneous ordinary differential equations, i.e.:
$$ \dot{x}=Ax $$
where $A$ is an $n\times n$ real matrix.
The matrix exponential method (described for example here) tells me that
$$ e^{At} C $$
where $C=(C_1,C_2,C_3)$ are arbitrary constants, is the general solution to the system.
There is another method, which I will call here the eigenvectors method, (described in three parts here) that builds the solutions step-by-step, column-by-column. If $A$ is diagonizable with eigenvectors $v_1,\dots,v_n$ we obtain the solution
$$ x=C_1 e^{\lambda_1 t} v_1 + \dots + C_n e^{\lambda_n t} $$
If $A$ is not diagonizable, then we use the Jordan form of $A$: for generalized eigenvectors we have generalized summands. So if $v$ is not an eigenvector, but a generalized eigenvector, then instead of writing $C_i e^{\lambda_i t} v$ in the sum, we write
$$ C_i e^{\lambda_i t}\left( 1+t+\frac{t^2}{2} + \frac{t^3}{3!} + \dots + \frac{t^n}{n!} \right) v\qquad (*)$$
where $n$ is the rank of the generalized eigenvector $v$.
Now comes my question. When I first saw these two methods, I thought they are one and the same method. It's because, to compute $e^{At}$ we also need to compute the (maybe generalized) diagonalization $A=M D M^{-1}$ where $D$ is in Jordan form and $M$ is a base changing matrix. Then, by a known formula
$$ e^{At}= e^{M(Dt)M^{-1}} = M^{-1}e^{Dt}M $$
and computing $e^{Dt}$ can be done easilly. If $D$ is diagonal, then $e^{Dt}$ is just element-wise exponenciation. If there is a off-diagonal nonzero element, we get something resembling $(*)$. So the eigenvectors method is just matrix exponential method in disguise, right?
Sadly no. Even if $D$ is indeed diagonal, then the matrix exponential method will give
$$ x = M^{-1} e^{Dt} M C $$
but the eigenvector method will give instead
$$ x = e^{Dt} M C $$
and this is really confusing for me. Why on Earth would I want to compute $M^{-1}$, when it's completely unnecessary? I just fail to understand why the matrix exponential method exists. So I want to know why. For me now it looks like the matrix exponential does more work for the uglier results, because almost always $e^{Dt}M$ is simple and $M^{-1} e^{Dt} M$ is ugly. Maybe I am wrong or something that I've written above is wrong, that answers my question? (The question is motivated by an 1 hour+ of expanding out $M^{-1} e^{Dt} M$, after when I discovered the more elegant method.)