This question was on a calculus 1 test:
Given $\int_1^5 f(x) dx = 5$ and $\int_1^5 g(x) dx = \frac{2}{3}$,
Evaluate $\int_5^1 f(x) g(x) dx$
The following was my (naive) approach (using properties more suited to limits):
$\int_5^1 f(x) g(x) dx = -\int_1^5 f(x) g(x) dx = -5\bigl(\frac{2}{3}\bigr) = -\frac{10}{3}$
But I'm unsure whether integrals distribute over products in that way, and think the question was likely misprinted. However, I was awarded full marks for that answer. So is there a way that integral of a product can be the product of their integrals for unknown functions?