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Let $V$ be a vector space over a field $K$. Suppose further that $K$ has the following structures:

  • $K$ has a subfield $K_{\mathbb R}$ equipped with a field embedding $K_{\mathbb R}\hookrightarrow\mathbb R$, so we can identity elements of $K_{\mathbb R}$ with elements of $\mathbb R$.

  • $K$ has an involution $*:K\to K,z\mapsto z^*$, meaning $*$ is an automorphism and that $(z^*)^*=z$ for all $z\in K$.

Define a $(K,K_{\mathbb R},*,\hookrightarrow)$-inner product space $\big(V,(K,K_{\mathbb R},*,\hookrightarrow),\langle\cdot,\cdot\rangle\big)$ as a $K$-vector space (where $*,K_{\mathbb R},$ and $\hookrightarrow$ are the structures described above) together with a map $\langle\cdot,\cdot\rangle:V\times V\to K$ that satisfies the following properties:

  1. $\langle x,y\rangle=\langle y,x\rangle^*$ for all $x,y\in V$.
  2. $\langle x,\cdot\rangle:V\to K$ is linear for all fixed $x\in V$.
  3. $\forall x\in V\setminus\{0\}:\langle x,x\rangle>0$.

Condition (3) should be interpreted as saying $\langle x,x\rangle\in K_{\mathbb R}$ and the embedding (discussed above) identifies $\langle x,x\rangle$ with a positive real number.

The idea of this definition is to allow for inner products to be defined in the most general setting possible and still agree with the usual definitions for $\mathbb R$ and $\mathbb C$.

Define a $(K,K_{\mathbb R},*,\hookrightarrow)$-Hilbert space as a $(K,K_{\mathbb R},*,\hookrightarrow)$-inner product space in which the induced norm $\lVert x\rVert =\sqrt{\langle x,x\rangle}$ makes $V$ into a complete metric space.

Do there exist nontrivial$^\dagger$ $(K,K_{\mathbb R},*,\hookrightarrow)$-Hilbert spaces for any fields $K\neq\mathbb R$ or $\mathbb C$?

The "$\neq$" should be read as "not isomorphic to." If yes, that would suggest interesting possible extensions of the usual definition of Hilbert space; if no, that would provide a justification for only ever defining or considering Hilbert spaces over $\mathbb R$ and $\mathbb C$.


$^\dagger$ By non-trivial, I mean $V\neq\{0\}$, the single-element vector space.

WillG
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  • This post might be of interest to you : https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/49348/inner-product-spaces-over-finite-fields – Cameron L. Williams Apr 15 '20 at 00:42
  • the meromorphic functions defines a field, that constains $\Bbb C$ as a subfield. Indeed, if Im not wrong, it is a vector space over itself, and seems possible to define some inner product, anyway Im not sure –  Apr 15 '20 at 02:10
  • @CameronWilliams that example is interesting, though I was thinking if examples exist in my case, they would turn out to be infinite fields with an ordered subfield (though I'm not sure). – WillG Apr 15 '20 at 02:36
  • I'd also love it if condition (3) above could even be generalized further to let $P$ be some subset of $K$ with special enough properties to give a canonical mapping into $(0,\infty)$, for generality and elegance's sake. See this question of mine: https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/3625701/what-properties-must-a-field-k-satisfy-in-order-to-define-an-inner-product-on – WillG Apr 15 '20 at 02:41
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    https://arxiv.org/pdf/1904.12723.pdf might interest you, Aspects of p-adic operator algebras by Anton Claußnitzer and Andreas Thom, "In this article, we propose a p-adic analogue of complex Hilbert space...." Or Kalisch, G. K. “On p-Adic Hilbert Spaces.” Annals of Mathematics, vol. 48, no. 1, 1947, pp. 180–192. JSTOR, www.jstor.org/stable/1969224. – Gerry Myerson Apr 15 '20 at 04:32
  • Were those links useful, Will? – Gerry Myerson Apr 16 '20 at 12:17
  • I’m voting to close this question because OP has lost interest. – Gerry Myerson Apr 18 '20 at 03:49
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    Sorry, didn't have time to dig into that paper until now. It is above my level since I don't know much about $p$-adics. They are claiming to have generalized Hilbert spaces to $p$-adic fields, though their base space is a module rather than a vector space. I don't really know enough to understand their constructed space or inner product. Maybe someone can elucidate that in an answer here? – WillG Apr 18 '20 at 15:18
  • @WillG I don't understand condition (3). Can you state somewhere that you somehow have $(0,\infty)$ as a subset of $K$? – mathworker21 Jun 26 '21 at 17:42
  • @mathworker21 Actually I only require that a subset of $(0,\infty)$ is contained in $K$. I updated the question, so hopefully it is clearer now. – WillG Jun 26 '21 at 17:52
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    $K$ being a field containing the positive reals trivially implies that $K$ is an extension of $\mathbb R$ – Fra Jun 26 '21 at 17:56
  • You have to add the condition that $\langle 0,0 \rangle=0$ for the norm to make sense. Further, I would say that they are generalizations of Hilbert spaces called Hilbert modules, where the vector space is replaced by a module over a $C^*$-algebra $\mathcal{A}$, and the inner product takes values in $\mathcal{A}$. – Satwata Hans Jun 26 '21 at 18:36
  • @SatwataHans Doesn’t condition 2 ensure that $\langle0,0\rangle=0$? – WillG Jun 26 '21 at 18:49
  • @WillG Sorry. Condition 2 does ensure this. I misread condition 2 first. – Satwata Hans Jun 26 '21 at 18:54
  • What do you mean by $K^+\subseteq(0,\infty)\subseteq\mathbb R$? Presumably you want some sort of algebraic compatibility between the operations on $K$ and those on $\mathbb{R}$ rather than just a literal set-theoretic inclusion, but it is not obvious exactly what that compatibility should be. – Eric Wofsey Jun 26 '21 at 19:12
  • In any case, over any field $K$ satisfying your assumptions, there will always at least be a trivial (1-element) Hilbert space. – Eric Wofsey Jun 26 '21 at 19:17
  • @EricWofsey Good point, I guess I should be asking about non-trivial Hilbert space only. As for the previous point, I guess we could either let the $K^+\subseteq\mathbb R$ statement mean literal set-theoretic inclusion, or insist that $K$ has a complete ordered subfield $K_{\mathbb R}$. Then there is a canonical isomorphism between $K_{\mathbb R}$ and $\mathbb R$, so the question could be stated equivalently using this isomorphism for condition (3). – WillG Jun 26 '21 at 21:56
  • I think you misunderstood the point about a literal set-theoretic inclusion. A literal set-theoretic inclusion is far too weak to be useful for anything, since the field operations on $K^+$ could be totally unrelated to the usual operations on $\mathbb{R}$. – Eric Wofsey Jun 26 '21 at 22:04
  • @EricWofsey How about this: $K$ has some subfield $K_{\mathbb R}$ equipped with some field embedding into $\mathbb R$. Then we can identify elements of $K_{\mathbb R}$ with elements of $\mathbb R$ so that condition (3) makes sense. Does that make the question sensible? I do think there's a good question in here somewhere. – WillG Jun 26 '21 at 23:32
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    That would be a reasonable formulation. (It seems likely to me that completeness of a nontrivial Hilbert space would force $K_\mathbb{R}$ to be complete and thus isomorphic to $\mathbb{R}$ itself, but I haven't worked through the details.) – Eric Wofsey Jun 26 '21 at 23:36
  • @EricWofsey Got it, I updated the question. Perhaps these comments should be moved to a chat now, but I don't think I have the ability to do so. – WillG Jun 26 '21 at 23:45

1 Answers1

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Let us assume for convenience that the embedding $K_\mathbb{R}\to\mathbb{R}$ is actually the inclusion map of a subfield of $\mathbb{R}$. Suppose $V$ is any nontrivial $K$-Hilbert space and let $x\in V$ be nonzero. For any $a\in K_\mathbb{R}$, we then have $\|ax\|^2=aa^*\|x\|^2$. It follows that $a^*\in K_\mathbb{R}$ and $a^*$ has the same sign as $a$. Thus $a\mapsto a^*$ is an order-preserving embedding of $K_\mathbb{R}$ into itself and therefore must be the identity (since it is the identity on $\mathbb{Q}$, which is order-dense in $K_\mathbb{R}$). That is, $a^*=a$ for all $a\in K_\mathbb{R}$. Now if $(a_n)$ is a sequence in $K_\mathbb{R}$ which converges to some $r\in\mathbb{R}$, the sequence $(a_nx)$ is Cauchy (since $\|a_nx-a_mx\|^2=(a_n-a_m)^2\|x\|^2$) and so converges to some $y\in V$. By continuity of the distance function on $V$, we must have $\|y\|^2=\lim_n \|a_nx\|^2=r^2\|x\|^2$. Since $r\in\mathbb{R}$ here is arbitrary, we have shown that the function $y\mapsto \langle y,y\rangle$ takes every nonnegative real value. Thus in fact $K_\mathbb{R}$ must be all of $\mathbb{R}$.

Now our field $K$ is an extension of $\mathbb{R}$ with an involutive automorphism $a\mapsto a^*$ which fixes $\mathbb{R}$ pointwise. Conversely, for any $a\in K$ such that $a=a^*$, we have $\|ax\|^2=a^2\|x\|^2\geq 0$ and thus $a^2\geq 0$, which implies $a\in\mathbb{R}$. That is, $\mathbb{R}$ is exactly the fixed field of the automorphism $a\mapsto a^*$. Thus $K$ is an extension of $\mathbb{R}$ of degree at most $2$ (specifically, of degree equal to the size of the group of automorphisms generated by $a\mapsto a^*$), and so it can only be $\mathbb{R}$ or $\mathbb{C}$.

Eric Wofsey
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  • My abstract algebra is a little rusty—how do we know that $a\mapsto a^*$ is order-preserving, as you claim in your first paragraph? – WillG Jun 29 '21 at 17:44
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    It preserves positivity, and thus it preserves the order since $x>y$ iff $x-y$ is positive. – Eric Wofsey Jun 29 '21 at 17:45