While going through one of the answer I came across the following notation
$P( y_i =1 \mid \mathbf{x}_i ; \theta)$
I am not sure about its interpretation and how should it be read.
The exact usage can be found here
Now logistic regression says that the probability that class variable value $y_i =1$ , $i=1,2,...m$ can be modelled as follows
$$ P( y_i =1 \mid \mathbf{x}_i ; \theta) = h_{\theta}(\mathbf{x}_i) = \dfrac{1}{1+e^{(- \theta^T \mathbf{x}_i)}} $$
so $y_i = 1$ with probability $h_{\theta}(\mathbf{x}_i)$ and $y_i=0$ with probability $1-h_{\theta}(\mathbf{x}_i)$.