I'll use $\succeq$ to denote the positive semidefinite ordering: for square matrices $X,Y$, one has $X \succeq Y$ iff $X - Y$ is positive semidefinite. It's a well known fact that if $X, Y \succeq 0$ then $X \otimes Y \succeq 0$. However, if one has two pairs of matrices with $X \succeq Y$ and $X' \succeq Y'$, it isn't necessarily the case that $X \otimes X' \succeq Y \otimes Y'$ (for instance, if $X = X' = I$ and $Y = Y' = -2I$).
My question is: if we add that $Y, Y' \succeq 0$, so our assumptions are $$ X \succeq Y \succeq 0,\ \ \ X' \succeq Y' \succeq 0 $$ Is it necessarily true that $X \otimes X' \succeq Y \otimes Y'$?
I personally feel that this should be true (and I could swear I've seen this result before but can't find it anywhere), but I'm struggling to prove it. Does anyone have a reference for this fact, and/or know how to prove (or disprove) it?