The variance $v_n$ of a natural number $n$ is defined as the variance of its divisors. There are distinct integer pairs whose variances are equal; the smallest such pair is $(691, 817)$. However I observed that for $n \le 10^8$ the ratio $\dfrac{n}{v_n}$ is different for each $n$. Is this true in general?
Unique variance conjecture: The ratio of a number to the variance of its divisors is injective. There does not exist two distinct positive integers $m$ and $n$ such that $$ \frac{m}{v_m} = \frac{n}{v_n} $$