We know that $$ \lim\limits_{x \rightarrow \infty} \mathrm{e}^{-x}\, x^n = 0$$ for any $n$. But I assume that usually, this is stated with the understanding that $n$ is finite. But what happens when we take the limit $$ \lim\limits_{n \rightarrow \infty} \lim\limits_{x \rightarrow \infty} \mathrm{e}^{-x}\, x^n = 0\,?$$ The context is that I have an infinite sum of the form $$ \lim\limits_{n \rightarrow \infty} \sum_{i=0}^n \mathrm{e}^{-x}\, x^i,$$ and I want to study its behavior as $x \rightarrow \infty$. In summary,
Does $$ \lim\limits_{x \rightarrow \infty} \sum_{i=0}^\infty \mathrm{e}^{-x}\, x^i,$$ converge?
This question seems to indicate that the answer might be yes, but I wonder if taking $n \rightarrow \infty$ messes anything up?