This question is related to this other question.
When understanding how it is defined the ring of symmetric functions, I can not see why is so much important to take the inverse limit in the category of graded rings.
MY WORK
Consider $\Lambda$ to be the ring of symmetric functions.
$\Lambda_n$ to be the symmetric polynomials in $n$ independent variables.
Moreover, I know that in the category of rings, the objects are rings and the arrows are ring homomorphisms.
I also know that in the category of graded rings, the objects are rings and the arrows are graded rings homomorphisms. I.e. if $f:R\to S$ is a ring homomorphisms. A graded ring homomorphisms is $f$ such that $f(R)\subseteq S$.
Then, in the category of graded rings,
$$\Lambda = \varprojlim\Lambda_n = \left\{a \in \prod_{i\in I}\Lambda_i \mathrel{\Bigg|} \forall i \leq j: f_{i,j}(a_j)=a_i \right\}$$
In the category of rings,
$$\Lambda ^* = \varprojlim\Lambda_n = \left\{a \in \prod_{i\in I}\Lambda_i \mathrel{\Bigg|} \forall i \leq j: f_{i,j}(a_j)=a_i \right\}$$
And $\Lambda \subset \Lambda^*$ (my teacher told me).
But I can not see what makes the difference in considering the inverse limit in these two different categories. I can not see how it affects the arrows in the categories to these sets.
Any help?