The following is from p.4 of https://www.math.ucdavis.edu/~hunter/intro_analysis_pdf/ch3.pdf
The terms in the Fibonacci sequence are uniquely determined by the linear difference equation
$$F_n − F_{n−1} − F_{n−2} = 0, n ≥ 3$$
with the initial conditions $F_1 = 1, F_2 = 1$.
We see that $F_n = r^n$ is a solution of the difference equation if $r$ satisfies $r^2 − r − 1 = 0$ which gives $r = \phi$ or −$\dfrac{1}{\phi}$ where $\phi = \dfrac{1 + \sqrt{5}}{2}\approx 1.61803$.
I'm unable to see why $F_n = r^n$ is a solution of the difference equation if $r$ satisfies $r^2-r-1=0$.