I want to prove that the definitions of directional derivative by scalar product, $\nabla f(x) .v$, and by a limit, $\displaystyle \lim_{h \to 0}\dfrac{f(x+hv)-f(x)}{h}$, are the same one. I tried to do it using definitions of gradient but failed. Wikipedia proved it this way, but I can't understand the start of the proof, because I don't see why you can start from that limit being $0$. Isn't this an assumption of the thesis?
Note: While I was writing this post, I found an answer on why they are equivalent here, but I still want an explanation of what Wikipedia is doing, so I'll make the post.
