Let $F$ be the average of $f(x)$ for $m$ given vectors $x_1,\dots,x_m$, that is,$$ F=\frac{1}{m}\sum_{i=1}^m f(x_i). $$ Here $f(x)$ is a convex function from $\mathbb{R}^n$ to $\mathbb{R}$.
Can we always find a convex combination of $x_1,\dots,x_m$, denoted by $\bar{x}=\sum_{i=1}^m\lambda_ix_i$, such that $F=f(\bar{x})$?
The convex combination implies that $\lambda_i\ge0$ and $\sum_{i=1}^m\lambda_i=1$.
I am aware of Jensen's inequality$$ F=\frac{1}{m}\sum_{i=1}^m f(x_i) \ge f(\bar{x}), $$ for $\bar{x}=\frac{1}{m}\sum_{i=1}^m x_i$ which may or may not be useful in a proof. I also know that $f_{min} \le F \le f_{max}$, where $f_{min}=\min_if(x_i)$ and $f_{max}=\max_if(x_i)$. If there are some counterexamples for the general case, then under what conditions we could find such a convex combination? Is continuity of $f$ a necessary condition?