I have a question about (https://math.stackexchange.com/q/10279)'s proof to this. I also asked as a comment but I am unsure whether it will be replied to since the post was made 8 years ago?
My question to their proof is: How does $x+xy+yx+y=x+y$ imply $xy=yx$? Doesn't $xy=yx$ imply $xy-yx=0$, and so how is $xy+yx=0$?