I'm reading Simmons's Differential Equations and find that I have to obtain Euler-Lagrange equations of the following integrand (integrand of the action functional):
$L = \frac 1 2 m \Big\lbrace \Big(\frac{dx}{dt}\Big)^2+\Big(\frac{dy}{dt}^2\Big)+\Big(\frac{dz}{dt}\Big)^2 \Big\rbrace - V(x,y,z)$
the text claims that the Euler-Lagrange equations are:
$m\Big(\frac{d^2x}{dt^2}\Big)+\frac{\partial V}{dx} = 0$
$m\Big(\frac{d^2y}{dt^2}\Big)+\frac{\partial V}{dy} = 0$
$m\Big(\frac{d^2z}{dt^2}\Big)+\frac{\partial V}{dz} = 0$
I'm trying to see how this holds from Wikipedia's list of Euler-Lagrange equations. I think my case corresponds to 'Several functions of single variable with single derivative'.
But there I find this notation $\frac{\partial L}{\partial f_i} - \frac{d}{dx}\frac{\partial L}{\partial f_i'}$ where $f_i' = \frac{df_i}{dx}$. The correspondence with my example is $x \to t$ and $f_1 \to x,f_2 \to y,f_3 \to z$.
What does exactly, $\frac{\partial L}{\partial f_i}$ and $\frac{\partial L}{\partial f_i'}$ so that I can obtain the above equations?
\partial) and $d$ in your derivatives. Especially in the Euler Lagrange equations, where at least in the general form, we use both simultaneously. – Arthur Mar 31 '18 at 19:29