I am reading the following book:
Optimization by Vector Space Methods written by D. G. Luenberger
My problem comes from the Example 1. in p.127
In $X = l_2$, consider the elements $x_n=\{0,0,\ldots,0,1,0,\ldots\}$ with $1$ in the $n$-th place. For any $y=\{\eta_1,\eta_2,\ldots\}\in l_2=X^*$, we have $(x_n\mid y)=\eta_n \rightarrow 0$ as $n\rightarrow \infty$. Thus $x_n\rightarrow 0$ weakly. However $x_n$ does not converge to $0$ strongly since $\|x_n\|=1$.
I am confused about why $\eta_n \rightarrow 0$? If I pick $\eta_i = 0$ for all $i\neq n$ and $\eta_n=1$?
Kindly put some similar questions: