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Let $p$ be a prime number. up to isomorphism, there is exactly two abelian groups of order $p^2$.

It is easy to see those two are $\mathbb{Z}_{p^2}$ and $\mathbb{Z}_{p}\times\mathbb{Z}_{p}$. It is easy to see that if their exist another one then it should not be cyclic. But how to prove exactly?

MAN-MADE
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2 Answers2

5

Consider 2 cases: whether or not there exists an element of order $p^2$. If it does exist, then the group is $\mathbb{Z}_{p^2}$. If not, then you have to prove that this condition forces the group to be $\mathbb{Z}_{p}\times\mathbb{Z}_{p}$

To prove that consider two elements $x \in G, y \in G\backslash\langle x \rangle$ of order $p$ and the group generated by them:

$| \langle x, y \rangle | > | \langle x \rangle |$, hence $G = \langle x, y \rangle.$ It is easy to see from here that $G \cong \mathbb{Z}_{p}\times\mathbb{Z}_{p}$

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See here fundamental theorem of finitely generated abelian groups.

Davood
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