I know that a circle can be described with infinite parametric equations. Given a parametric equation $(x(t), y(t))$, how can I prove that the curve is a circle?
Thank you very much.
I know that a circle can be described with infinite parametric equations. Given a parametric equation $(x(t), y(t))$, how can I prove that the curve is a circle?
Thank you very much.
One possibility would be to show that for all $t$, $x(t)^2+y(t)^2$ is the same positive real number. You would also have to show that for an appropriate parameter interval, the entire circle is generated.
This answer shows what to do if we don't know that the circle is centred at zero. A curve is part of a circle if and only if its radius of curvature is a finite constant (and hence so is its curvature):
A circle satisfies $(x-a)^2+(y-b)^2=c^2$. Differentiating, $$ (x-a)x' + (y-b)y' = 0, $$ or $$ \frac{x-a}{y-b} = -\frac{y'}{x'} \implies \frac{\sqrt{x'^2+y'^2}}{\lvert x' \rvert} = \frac{\sqrt{(y-b)^2+(x-a)^2}}{\lvert y-b \rvert} = \frac{c}{\lvert y-b \rvert}, $$ (squaring both sides, adding $1$ and taking a square root) and differentiating the first of these again, $$ \frac{-y''x'+x''y'}{x'^2} = \frac{x'}{y-b} -\frac{(x-a)y'}{(y-b)^2} = \frac{1}{y-b} \left( x' + \frac{y'^2}{x'} \right) = \frac{x'^2+y'^2}{(y-b)x'}, $$ so $$ \left| \frac{x''y'-y''x'}{x'^2+y'^2} \right| = \frac{\lvert x' \rvert}{\lvert y-b \rvert} = \frac{\sqrt{x'^2+y'^2}}{c}. $$ Thus $$ \left| \frac{x''y'-y''x'}{(x'^2+y'^2)^{3/2}} \right| = \frac{1}{c}. $$ It therefore is sensible to call the reciprocal of this quantity the radius of curvature.
Now, let's show the other direction: that if $\left| \frac{x''y'-y''x'}{(x'^2+y'^2)^{3/2}} \right|$ is constant, $(x,y)$ describes an arc of a circle. It is useful to know how the curvature changes under reparametrisation: if $t=t(s)$, and we use the convention that $' = d/dt$, $\dot{} = d/ds$, then $$\dot{x}^2+\dot{y}^2 = \dot{t}^2(x'^2+y'^2),$$ and $$ \ddot{x}\dot{y}-\ddot{y}\dot{x} = (x'\ddot{t}+x''\dot{t}^2)y'\dot{t} - (y'\ddot{t}+y''\dot{t}^2)x'\dot{t} = \dot{t}^3(x''y'-y''x'), $$ and so the curvature is invariant under reparametrisation, which is sensible.
It's especially nice because we can re-parametrise using the arc-length, where $x'^2+y'^2=1$, so it amounts to solving $$ x''y'-y''x' = 1/c. $$ Differentiating the arc-length equation gives $$ x''x'+y''y' = 0 \implies y''= -\frac{x''x'}{y'}, $$ so $$ \frac{1}{c} = x''y' +\frac{x''x'^2}{y'} = x''\frac{x'^2+y'^2}{y'} = \frac{x''}{y'}, $$ so $y'=cx''$ and $x'=-cy''$, a system of equations which, together with $x'^2+y'^2=1$, has only solutions of the form $x=a+c\cos{((t-t_0)/c)}$, $y=b+c\sin{((t-t_0)/c)}$, i.e. circular arcs.
From the standard definition of a circle:
you have to prove that there exists a point $C$ that has the same distance from any pointwit the coordinates $(x(t),y(t))$