Let $f:X\rightarrow Y.$If $f $ is continuous,then for every convergent sequence $x_n\rightarrow x$ in $X$,the sequence $f(x_n)$ converges to $f(x)$.The converse holds if $X$ is first countabe.
I was getting problem in proving the converse part but Convergence of $f(x_n)$ implies convergence of $x_n$ (From Daniel Fischer's 2nd comment) cleared my query upto very very extent.Now i wanted to know where does the notion of first countability is used in proving its converse?
This is the proof given in Munkres
To prove the converse,assume that the convergent sequence condition is satisfied.Let A be as subset of $X$;We show that $f(\bar{A}) \subset \overline{f(A)}$.If $x\in \bar{A},$there is a sequence converging to $x$.By assumption,the sequence $f(x_n)\rightarrow f(x) $.Since $f(x_n)\in f(A) \implies f(x)\in \overline{f(A)}$.Hence $f(\bar{A}) \subset \overline{f(A)}$.
How does $f(\bar{A}) \subset \overline{f(A)}$ happened?
My trial:
Let $x\in \bar{A} $ then $f(x)\in f(\bar{A})-----------------(1)$ .
Now we'll show that $f(x)\in \overline{f(A)} $. Since $x\in \bar{A}$ so there exists a sequence,$<x_n>$ in $A$ such that $<x_n>\rightarrow x$ and by assumption we have $f(x_n)\rightarrow f(x)$ then $f(x)\in \overline{f(A)}---------------------------(2)$
From (1) and (2) we have $f(\bar{A}) \subset \overline{f(A)}$.
Is it correct?