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I've known that the original Cauchy convergence test for complex number series. I'm now wondering that if we can generate this critierion to double series.

More formally, consider the double series $\sum_{i,k=1}^{\infty} a_i^{(k)}$. We say this series converges to the complex number $A$ iff $\forall \epsilon >0\exists N\in \mathbb{N}\forall I\ge N\forall K\ge N (|\sum_{i=1}^I\sum_{k=1}^K a_i^{(k)}-A|<\epsilon$.

So what's the generated Cauchy convergence test should be now? My original idea is:

$\forall \epsilon >0\exists N\forall I,K,S,T\ge N (|\sum_{i=1}^I\sum_{k-1}^ka_i^{(k)}-\sum_{s=1}^S\sum_{t=1}^{T}a_s^{(t)}|<\epsilon$ (1)

But I have difficulty in proving this criterion can imply convergence; moreover, I've read Notes on mathematical analysis which states the Cauchy test should be like:

$\forall \epsilon >0\exists N ((\max(p,q)\ge N)\wedge (P>p)\wedge (Q>q)\Rightarrow |\sum_{p\le i\le P,q\le k\le Q} a_i^{(k)}|<\epsilon $ (2)

I've noticed that (2) is weaker than (1) (if write $a_i^{(k)}$ in matrix, (1) is a bigger rectangle minus a smaller one, while (2) just consider the rectangle "diagonally" to the smaller one), but I still can't prove this implies convergence.

In addition, if (2) is the actual criterion, then there should be a counterexample that (1) is true but the original sequence doesn't convergent. What this example can be?

Thanks in advance for any help.

RRL
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Yiyi Rao
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1 Answers1

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Your condition (2) is what is known as the Cauchy criterion for a double series. I will prove that this condition is sufficient for convergence.

Consider the double series $\sum_i\sum_k a_{ik}.$ You correctly stated the so-called Pringsheim definition of convergence:

The double series converges to $A$ if, given the double sequence of partial sums

$$S_{mn}=\sum_{i=1}^m\sum_{k=1}^n a_{ik},$$

we have for any $\epsilon >0$ a positive integer $N$ such that if $ m,n \geqslant N$ then $|S_{mn} - A| < \epsilon.$

Suppose that the Cauchy criterion is satisfied. For any $\epsilon > 0$ there exists a positive integer $M$ such that if $p \geqslant m \geqslant M$ and $q \geqslant n \geqslant M,$ then we have $|S_{pq}-S_{mn}| < \epsilon.$

If $m =n$ and $p = q,$ then the sequence $T_n = S_{nn}$ satisfies the usual Cauchy criterion for single sequences, where $|T_q - T_n| < \epsilon$ when $q \geqslant n \geqslant N$. Thus the sequence $T_n$ converges to a limit $A$.

Now we can show that the double series also converges to $A$.

By convergence of $T_n$, there exists a positive integer $N_1$ such that if $n \geqslant N_1$ then $|S_{nn} - A| < \epsilon/2.$

By the Cauchy criterion for double series, there exists a positive integer $N_2$ such that $p \geqslant m \geqslant N_2$ and $q \geqslant n \geqslant N_2$ implies $|S_{pq} - S_{mn}| < \epsilon/2.$ In particular, with $m = n$ we have $|S_{pq} - S_{nn}| < \epsilon/2.$

Hence, if $p,q \geqslant \max(N_1,N_2)$ we have

$$|S_{pq} - A| \leqslant |S_{pq} - S_{nn}| + | S_{nn} - A| < \epsilon.$$

RRL
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  • So what you're saying is that $(1)$ is sufficient condition, but we haven't addressed $(2)$ – able20 Jan 11 '21 at 00:19
  • @able20: (1) is the statement of the Cauchy criterion for a double series that appears in every reference I have seen starting with the classic Introduction to the Theory of Infinite Series by Bromwich -- the book that Hardy suggested Ramanujan study when he came to Cambridge. Hopefully the OP has now resolved the difficulty in understanding how to prove. that "this criterion can imply convergence". I have no idea what Notes in Mathematical Analysis are -- the supposed source for (2). Does the statement that (2) is a weaker condition than (1) make sense to you? – RRL Jan 11 '21 at 03:04
  • Unless you see a problem with this proof and a theorem I have seen quoted numerous times, then the pursuit of the suggestion that there is a counterexample where (1) holds but the series does not converge is a wild goose chase. Furthermore if (2) holds with $P>p$, $Q> q$ and $\max(p,q) > N$ then (1) holds since $p \wedge q > N$ implies $\max(p,q) > N$. – RRL Jan 11 '21 at 03:10
  • Thanks! I think your last sentence just shows that if $(1)$ holds then $(2)$ holds, that $(2)$ is a weaker condition, not the vice versa. – able20 Jan 11 '21 at 05:13
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    @able20: Yes — you are correct. I should have stopped with (2) just doesn’t seem to make sense and there is no counterexample to (1). – RRL Jan 11 '21 at 05:48