I've known that the original Cauchy convergence test for complex number series. I'm now wondering that if we can generate this critierion to double series.
More formally, consider the double series $\sum_{i,k=1}^{\infty} a_i^{(k)}$. We say this series converges to the complex number $A$ iff $\forall \epsilon >0\exists N\in \mathbb{N}\forall I\ge N\forall K\ge N (|\sum_{i=1}^I\sum_{k=1}^K a_i^{(k)}-A|<\epsilon$.
So what's the generated Cauchy convergence test should be now? My original idea is:
$\forall \epsilon >0\exists N\forall I,K,S,T\ge N (|\sum_{i=1}^I\sum_{k-1}^ka_i^{(k)}-\sum_{s=1}^S\sum_{t=1}^{T}a_s^{(t)}|<\epsilon$ (1)
But I have difficulty in proving this criterion can imply convergence; moreover, I've read Notes on mathematical analysis which states the Cauchy test should be like:
$\forall \epsilon >0\exists N ((\max(p,q)\ge N)\wedge (P>p)\wedge (Q>q)\Rightarrow |\sum_{p\le i\le P,q\le k\le Q} a_i^{(k)}|<\epsilon $ (2)
I've noticed that (2) is weaker than (1) (if write $a_i^{(k)}$ in matrix, (1) is a bigger rectangle minus a smaller one, while (2) just consider the rectangle "diagonally" to the smaller one), but I still can't prove this implies convergence.
In addition, if (2) is the actual criterion, then there should be a counterexample that (1) is true but the original sequence doesn't convergent. What this example can be?
Thanks in advance for any help.