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This question is not the same as Dirac delta function as a limit of sinc function because I am asking about the inverse Fourier transform and more specifically the relation of equation $(1)$ below to the expression in $\color{purple}{\mathrm{purple}}$ below.

From this previous question asked by myself with some help I became convinced that the Dirac-Delta function can be written as $$\delta(t-u)=\frac{1}{2\pi}\int_{-\infty}^\infty e^{i\omega(t-{u})} \, \mathrm{d}\omega \tag{1}$$enter image description here

Consider the rectangular distribution of frequencies in $\displaystyle\mathrm{(a)}$, taking the inverse Fourier transform

$$f_{\Omega}=\frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi}}\int_{-\Omega}^{\Omega}1\times e^{i\omega t} \,\mathrm{d}\omega$$

$$=\sqrt{\frac{2}{\pi}}\frac{\sin(\Omega t)}{t}$$ My text tells me that as $\Omega \to \infty \implies f_{\Omega} \to \sqrt{2\pi}\delta(t)$ by virtue of $(1)$.

Could someone please explain this to me as I don't see why $$\color{purple}{\sqrt{\frac{2}{\pi}}\frac{\sin(\Omega t)}{t} \to \sqrt{2\pi}\delta(t)}$$ as $\Omega \to \infty$?

Thank you.

BLAZE
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    Try plotting the right hand side for increasing values of $\Omega$. – copper.hat Oct 13 '15 at 05:43
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    @copper.hat Hi, right hand side of what? – BLAZE Oct 13 '15 at 05:52
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    @BLAZE: Sorry, I meant left hand side of the last equation. – copper.hat Oct 13 '15 at 05:53
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    I think one thing to note here is the sense in which the functions $f_{\Omega}$ converge to their limit. It is not pointwise, i.e. we don't say that for all $t$, $f_{\Omega}(t) \to \sqrt{2 \pi}\delta(t)$. – Simon Oct 13 '15 at 06:03
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    I like Reed and Simon's 'Functional Analysis'. It seems to combine rigour and motivation. Try it if you get a chance - you might find it helps in general. – Simon Oct 13 '15 at 06:10
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    Before we answer this question, you should clarify in what sense you claim convergence. (My old tip is indeed still valid) – mickep Oct 13 '15 at 06:38

2 Answers2

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First of all, I would like to emphasize once again, that I think you should learn distribution theory properly. It will increase your understanding. You should not be too upset when we say this over and over again. We have walked the path, and our intentions are good. Let me sketch how to do this problem for you, using distribution theory. This is the last time I answer questions like this from you, though.

You want to show that $$ \sqrt{\frac{2}{\pi}}\frac{\sin(\Omega t)}{t} \to \sqrt{2\pi}\delta(t) $$ First of all, and as I mentioned in a comment, one has to explain what is meant by such a limit. We have a function in the left-hand side, and a distribution in the right hand side. Let us give a definition of what it means for a distribution to converge. (Below I will write $\mathcal D=C_0^{+\infty}(\mathbf R)$ and $\mathcal D'$ for the set of distributions with $\mathcal D$ as test functions.)

Definition The family of distributions $T_\Omega\in\mathcal D'$, $\Omega>0$ converge to the distribution $T\in D'$ precicely when $$ T_\Omega(\phi)\to T(\phi) $$ all test function $\phi$.

Note that the limit $T_\Omega(\phi)\to T(\phi)$ is a limit of real numbers.

To interpret the function $\sqrt{\frac{2}{\pi}}\frac{\sin(\Omega t)}{t}$ we have to say how it acts on functinos in $\mathcal D$. This was discussed in another of my answers to you. We let $T_\Omega$ be the distribution associated with the function, i.e. $$ T_\Omega(\phi)=\int_{-\infty}^{+\infty}\sqrt{\frac{2}{\pi}}\frac{\sin(\Omega t)}{t} \phi(t)\,dt. $$ Also, to have notations that fit with the limit definition above, we let $T$ be the distribution associated with the dirac distribution you have in the right-hand side. $$ T(\phi)=\sqrt{2\pi}\phi(0). $$ Hence, what you have to show is the following:

What we need to show Let $\phi\in\mathcal D$. Then $$ \lim_{\Omega\to+\infty} \int_{-\infty}^{+\infty}\sqrt{\frac{2}{\pi}}\frac{\sin(\Omega t)}{t} \phi(t)\,dt=\sqrt{2\pi}\phi(0). $$

Note that, when stated like this, everything makes sense! We have no divergent integrals or something that could confuse us.

Here, we could continue in essentially two ways. Either we use properties of Fourier transform of distributions to work on the Fourier side, or we try to work to show the limit directly.

To prove it directly

First, divide the integral as $$ \int_{-\infty}^{+\infty}\sqrt{\frac{2}{\pi}}\frac{\sin(\Omega t)}{t} \phi(t)\,dt =\int_{|t|\geq 1}\sqrt{\frac{2}{\pi}}\frac{\sin(\Omega t)}{t} \phi(t)\,dt+ \int_{|t|\leq 1}\sqrt{\frac{2}{\pi}}\frac{\sin(\Omega t)}{t} \phi(t)\,dt. $$ In the first integral, integrate by parts to see that it goes to zero as $\Omega\to+\infty$. Then write the second integral as $$ \int_{|t|\leq 1}\sqrt{\frac{2}{\pi}}\frac{\sin(\Omega t)}{t} \phi(t)\,dt =\int_{|t|\leq 1}\sqrt{\frac{2}{\pi}}\frac{\sin(\Omega t)}{t} \bigl(\phi(t)-\phi(0)\bigr)\,dt+\phi(0)\int_{|t|\leq 1}\sqrt{\frac{2}{\pi}}\frac{\sin(\Omega t)}{t} \,dt. $$ For the first integral in the right-hand side, you note that $t\mapsto (\phi(t)-\phi(0))/t$ is smooth, and hence that integral goes to zero as $\Omega\to+\infty$ (this can be seen via Riemann-Lebesgue, or just by integrating by parts). In the second integral in the right-hand side, you do the substitution $t\mapsto t/\Omega$ and use the Calculus fact that $$ \lim_{\Omega\to+\infty}\int_{-\Omega}^{+\Omega}\sqrt{\frac{2}{\pi}}\frac{\sin(t)}{t}\,dt=\sqrt{2\pi} $$ to conclude.

Using Fourier transforms

For a distribution $T$, its Fourier transform $\hat T$ is defined via $$ \hat T(\phi)=T(\hat \phi), $$ i.e. it acts on a test function as $T$ acts on the Fourier transform of the test function. Note that $\phi$ is in $\mathcal D$, so it has a nice Fourier transform, and all formulas and properties for Fourier transforms one could expect is possessed by $\hat\phi$. I leave it to you to try to show the limit, using the nice Fourier transform of the sinc function.

mickep
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    @mickep Excellent! I've written several answers on MSE on the topic of the Dirac Delta and Generalized Functions. So, I really enjoy reading others post quality replies. A big +1! – Mark Viola Oct 13 '15 at 20:31
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As $\Omega \to \infty$, the rectangular distribution tends to a constant function. And the Fourier of a constant is (by definition?) the dirac delta function.

Edit:

There are two conventions for the Fourier Transform.

The first convention:

$$\frac{1}{2\pi}\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}F(\omega) e^{i\omega t} d\omega \iff \int_{-\infty}^{\infty}f(t) e^{-i\omega t} dt$$

the dirac delta function, shifted in time by $u$, is then defined by,

$$\delta(t - u) := \frac{1}{2\pi}\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} e^{i\omega (t - u)}d\omega = \frac{1}{2\pi}\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} F(\omega)e^{i\omega t} d\omega$$ where $F_u(\omega) = e^{-i\omega u}$. (i.e. modulation)

When there is no time shift, i.e. $u = 0$. Then $F_u(\omega) = 1$, the constant function. And we have $$\delta(t) = \frac{1}{2\pi}\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} e^{i\omega t} d\omega$$

The second conventions, which assures a "symmetry" between Time and frequency

$$\frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi}}\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}F(\omega) e^{i\omega t} d\omega \iff \frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi}}\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}f(t) e^{-i\omega t} dt $$

Then the inverse Fourier of the constant function is related to delta delta (keeping its definition as above) by:

$$\frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi}}\int_{\infty}^{\infty} e^{i\omega t} d\omega = \sqrt{2\pi}\delta(t)$$

Conclusion: Knowing that the (unit) rectangular function has inverse Fourier $\sqrt{\frac{2}{\pi}}\frac{\sin(\Omega t)}{t}$. When $\Omega \to \infty$, the rectangular function tends to $1$. And then $\sqrt{\frac{2}{\pi}}\frac{\sin(\Omega t)}{t} \to \sqrt{2\pi}\delta(t)$.

Weaam
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    Thank you for your answer, I understand that it tends to a constant function but why does it tend to $\sqrt{2\pi}\delta(t)$ in other words would you care to show the steps such that $\color{#F80}{\sqrt{\frac{2}{\pi}}\frac{\sin(\Omega t)}{t} \to \sqrt{2\pi}\delta(t)}$ as $\Omega \to \infty$? – BLAZE Oct 13 '15 at 05:51
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    I thought why not take advantage of the Fourier transform, afterall that's one of its strength. $F(\Omega) \to 1$ as $\Omega \to \infty$ is simpler. Then transform it back to time domain $\frac{1}{2\pi}\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}e^{-i\omega t}d\omega = \delta(t)$. – Weaam Oct 13 '15 at 05:56
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    @BLAZE See Dirac delta function as a limit of sinc function for a proof of the the limit directly. – Weaam Oct 13 '15 at 06:04
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    @BLAZE regarding the possible duplicate. Your title concerns Inverse transform of dirac (which is the constant function), but as evident here, you are concerned with convergence of sinc to delta (purple, orange here, ...) without Fourier transform, which is what the other post is about! Thanks! – Weaam Oct 13 '15 at 06:19
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    Okay, let me simplify the question a little, what I don't understand is why the convergence is to $\sqrt{2\pi}\delta(t)$ and not $\sqrt{2\pi}\delta(t-u)$ and also where did the $\sqrt{2\pi}$ come from? and yes I will change the title and tag :). – BLAZE Oct 13 '15 at 06:24
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    @BLAZE Thank you. Why would you want a shifted function? $\delta(t-u)$ is the delta function shifted in time by $t = u$, and its Fourier transform is very different from a delta at the origin, for example the Fourier of cos is two shifted (as you'd verify using Euler's formula and substitution in the integral).

    As for the constant, did you take these two equations from the same book? Because conventions give us different constant, depending on how frequency is interpreted.

    – Weaam Oct 13 '15 at 06:46
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    @BLAZE As to the constant problem. Please read Fourier Transform to see the two different conventions, regarding Symmetry. – Weaam Oct 13 '15 at 06:54
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    I don't want a shifted function, I'm just trying to understand a proof given in a text that's all. I just don't see how the result should be $\sqrt{2\pi}\delta(t)$ what happened to the $\delta(t-u)$? – BLAZE Oct 13 '15 at 06:56
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    I'll edit the post to make this substitution clear, OK? Thanks! – Weaam Oct 13 '15 at 06:57
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    Thank you very much, that was exactly what I needed to see. Much appreciated :) – BLAZE Oct 13 '15 at 07:33
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    I have just realised that I have made a terrible mistake that may affect your proof. In my question I wrote originally that $\delta(t-u)=\frac{1}{2\pi}\int_{-\infty}^\infty e^{\color{red}{-}i\omega(t-{u})} , \mathrm{d}\omega$ but it should be $\delta(t-u)=\frac{1}{2\pi}\int_{-\infty}^\infty e^{i\omega(t-{u})} , \mathrm{d}\omega$ with the part marked $\color{red}{\mathrm{red}}$ being the typo. I have adjusted my question now but I am concerned that it may invalidate your proof. Sorry about this. – BLAZE Oct 13 '15 at 08:19
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    Not at all. I edited the post. Luckily (the unshifted) $\delta(t)$ is symmetric, so it didn't do any harm. – Weaam Oct 13 '15 at 08:24
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    That's good, thanks again – BLAZE Oct 13 '15 at 08:26
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    Thank you for double checking. Best regards! – Weaam Oct 13 '15 at 08:27