Am I correct in assuming that for a sigma algebra with only finitely many sets, the intersection of all its sets will be the empty set (because the sigma algebra contains complements); but if the sigma algebra contains uncountably many sets, this doesn't necessarily hold?
I'm trying to develop a better understanding, I would greatly appreciate your explanations
Edit: My confusion has arisen from the following question, in which a countable intersection is taken on the sets in a sigma algebra, but answers suggest that the result need not be the empty set: Proofs regarding measure of intersection of sets