To explain a bit deeper why your definition does not quite work, let's think about unit conversions. Specifically, let's think about using unit conversions to try to get rich quick.
We can see that $\$2 + 2\text{ cents} = 202\text{ cents}$. So, we might think that $(\$2 + 2\text{ cents}) \times (\$2 + 2\text{ cents}) = (202\text{ cents}) \times (202\text{ cents})$. But, using your definition,
$$(\$2 + 2\text{ cents}) \times (\$2 + 2\text{ cents}) = \$4 + 4\text{ cents}$$
$$(202\text{ cents}) \times (202\text{ cents}) = 40804\text{ cents} = \$408 + 4\text{ cents}$$
This doesn't seem like how things should work! Just by converting to cents before we multiplied our money, we became over $100$ times richer than we would have been had we instead left our currency in bills. There are two problems: first, we should really be multiplying term by term, so
$$(\$2 + 2\text{ cents}) \times (\$2 + 2\text{ cents}) = (\$2)(\$2) + (\$2)(2\text{ cents}) + (2\text{ cents})(\$2) + (2\text{ cents})(2\text{ cents})$$
$$ = \$^24 + \$8\text{ cents} + 4\text{ cents}^2$$
and second, we should be multiplying the units together, so
$$(202\text{ cents}) \times (202\text{ cents}) = 40804\text{ cents}^2$$
Now, these two things look different, but you have to keep in mind the $\$1 = 100\text{ cents}$, so
$$\$^24 + \$8\text{ cents} + 4\text{ cents}^2 = (100\text{ cents})^2(4) + (100 \text{ cents})8\text{ cents} + 4\text{ cents}^2 = 40804\text{ cents}^2$$
exactly what we got by converting to cents first.