In Rudin - Real and complex Analysis we have written:
If $X$ and $Y$ are topological spaces and if $f$ is a mapping of $X$ into $Y$, then $f$ is said to be continuous provided that $f^{-1}(V)$ is an open set in $X$ for every open set $V$ in $Y$.
Can you help clarify what this means? I have thought on, and I don't get it.
This is my attempt to understand, perhaps you can highlight my issues with this:
So $X$ and $Y$ both have a topology over them, firstly, I have no idea if this is the same or a different topology. I imagine it is only the same if $X=Y$, so here is different in all cases other than that.
We have $f:X\to Y$, and we (obviously) have $f^{-1}:Y\to X$. We say that $f$ is continuous if we can go back from $Y$ to $X$, and when we do so from any open set in $Y$, we obtain an open set of $X$.
I think that all of the elements of the topology $X$ are open sets in $X$, and hence we simply need $f^{-1}$ to map to some element in $X$, but that seems pointless, since then any topological space with a mapping would be continuous?
Of course, the existence of a function $f^{-1}:Y\rightarrow X$ is far from obvious, since it's false whenever $f$ is not bijective.
– Apr 07 '15 at 14:21